No, it is pricing in a range of $1.80, not 3.60. And, I have no idea where you got that probability from.
A +/- 1.80 is a 3.60 range. From - 1.80 to + 1.80. But I may be confused about the english term to describe it. Sorry.
Do you think the probabilities I gave are wrong, why? I gave them grosso modo, of course.
You are also making this way too complicated.
I don't think they are wrong. I only want to know what is the logic behind their atm option pricing . Like a manufacturer that sells his product knows exactly what are the cost and what are his profit margin . Why the market makers, manufacturers, are pricing the options like they do.
It is not a question to win, it is only to think.
