Hi all
I would first like to thank many ETers on here who have made a significant impression on my approach to risk management during my foray into the options space through their numerous posts over the years (RiskArb/Atticus , Maverick 77 etc) as well as the very many intelligent posts by many many others.
I had a quick question please.
I recently had on a 35.5/37/38.5 iron fly on Twitter (TWTR) that had a last trade date of Friday 5 June (yday) expiring today.
My broker (IB) confirmed that TWTR's official closing price as used by the OCC to assess whether puts/calls are in or out of the money was 37 (a strike pin) and so I had expected to not have to cover to remove my delta exposure.
I am therefore surprised to see that some of my options (puts) have been assigned despite the assignment/exercise rules being based on a $0.01 rule.
It is a simple case of selling the stock pre-market on Monday (annoyingly the stock last traded for 36.86 after hours so I may need to sell stock at a slight loss if it stays here or continues to 'tank') but I would be grateful if someone could explain why I was assigned even though the stock closed at the pin (short body) strike to the penny?
Many thanks in advance
Mudi
I would first like to thank many ETers on here who have made a significant impression on my approach to risk management during my foray into the options space through their numerous posts over the years (RiskArb/Atticus , Maverick 77 etc) as well as the very many intelligent posts by many many others.
I had a quick question please.
I recently had on a 35.5/37/38.5 iron fly on Twitter (TWTR) that had a last trade date of Friday 5 June (yday) expiring today.
My broker (IB) confirmed that TWTR's official closing price as used by the OCC to assess whether puts/calls are in or out of the money was 37 (a strike pin) and so I had expected to not have to cover to remove my delta exposure.
I am therefore surprised to see that some of my options (puts) have been assigned despite the assignment/exercise rules being based on a $0.01 rule.
It is a simple case of selling the stock pre-market on Monday (annoyingly the stock last traded for 36.86 after hours so I may need to sell stock at a slight loss if it stays here or continues to 'tank') but I would be grateful if someone could explain why I was assigned even though the stock closed at the pin (short body) strike to the penny?
Many thanks in advance
Mudi
