i am running a few trading systems automatically. in fact more than a few , 40+ systems running with their allocated capitals.
the sizing is determined by the optimal f i had run on the backtest results some time ago . all systems use the same ratio on their respective capital . Naturally i added and removed some systems, some systems shat the bed (capital dropped below the minimum level)etc.
today i had an idea while rereading ralph vince book. i run an optimal f test for the executed trade results , all the systems combined.
the result shows %20 percent is optimal while i was using %70. (on respective capital allocated to the system, divide that with 40 to get overall risk)
new result shows if i use %70 , i should blowup. according to the test i have blownup already. But in reality for 2017 18 acc shows a somewhat healty profit.
i think i am doing some logical mistake somewhere
do you have some idea
the sizing is determined by the optimal f i had run on the backtest results some time ago . all systems use the same ratio on their respective capital . Naturally i added and removed some systems, some systems shat the bed (capital dropped below the minimum level)etc.
today i had an idea while rereading ralph vince book. i run an optimal f test for the executed trade results , all the systems combined.
the result shows %20 percent is optimal while i was using %70. (on respective capital allocated to the system, divide that with 40 to get overall risk)
new result shows if i use %70 , i should blowup. according to the test i have blownup already. But in reality for 2017 18 acc shows a somewhat healty profit.
i think i am doing some logical mistake somewhere
do you have some idea