I'm interested to hear if global traders and investors normalise the price of foreign assets (equity, future, etc.) from its quoted currency to their own base currency.
For example, suppose I'm based in the UK and my funds are in GBP and I want to compare a Canadian energy company quoted in CAD to an Australian energy company quoted in AUD. I normalise the prices from their quoted currency to my base currency which is GBP, i.e. I convert the Canadian company CAD prices to GBP and the Australian company AUD prices to GBP.
Then I compare the companies on an apples to apples comparison basis and use the converted prices in my strategies.
Does anyone use this type of technique, if so why, if you don't then why not?
For example, suppose I'm based in the UK and my funds are in GBP and I want to compare a Canadian energy company quoted in CAD to an Australian energy company quoted in AUD. I normalise the prices from their quoted currency to my base currency which is GBP, i.e. I convert the Canadian company CAD prices to GBP and the Australian company AUD prices to GBP.
Then I compare the companies on an apples to apples comparison basis and use the converted prices in my strategies.
Does anyone use this type of technique, if so why, if you don't then why not?
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