I've been reading Natenberg's book 'Options as a Strategic Investment'
and was wondering several things.
On pg. 48, he says
"If the underlying contract is subject to stock-type settlement, as we raise interest rates, we raise the forward price, increasing the value of calls and decreasing the value of puts. Secondly, the interest rate may affect the cost of carrying the option. If the option is subject to stock-type settlement, as we raise interest rates we decreased the value of the option. In spite of the fact that the interest rate plays two roles, in most cases the same rate is applicable and we need only input one interest rate into the model. If, however, different rates are applicable, such as would be the case with foreign currency options (the foreign currency interest rate plays one role, the domestic currency interest rate plays a different role) the model will require the input of two interest rates. This is the case with Garman-Kohlhagen version of the Black-Scholes Model."
Can someone explain this paragraph to me?
1.) Why does the forward price increase as the interest rate increases? Why does the value of calls increase and price of puts decrease?
2.) If the interest rate affects the carrying cost of the option, why does it decrease the values of options?
Thank you for all of you help,
-Larry
and was wondering several things.
On pg. 48, he says
"If the underlying contract is subject to stock-type settlement, as we raise interest rates, we raise the forward price, increasing the value of calls and decreasing the value of puts. Secondly, the interest rate may affect the cost of carrying the option. If the option is subject to stock-type settlement, as we raise interest rates we decreased the value of the option. In spite of the fact that the interest rate plays two roles, in most cases the same rate is applicable and we need only input one interest rate into the model. If, however, different rates are applicable, such as would be the case with foreign currency options (the foreign currency interest rate plays one role, the domestic currency interest rate plays a different role) the model will require the input of two interest rates. This is the case with Garman-Kohlhagen version of the Black-Scholes Model."
Can someone explain this paragraph to me?
1.) Why does the forward price increase as the interest rate increases? Why does the value of calls increase and price of puts decrease?
2.) If the interest rate affects the carrying cost of the option, why does it decrease the values of options?
Thank you for all of you help,
-Larry