Okay so I'm talking about calendar spreads...
Example:
February crude oil short ATM call
March crude oil long ATM call
net debit
after I wait a month or so, then I simply buy back the spread for a gain from the faster time value dissipation from the Jan call... if long call is ATM then if underlying price rises, falls, or stays the same then wouldn't implied volatility rise or stay the same assuming a u-shaped graph (strike on x-axis, implied vol on y-axis) and no big news...
Is it really that common for implied volatility to drop and eat away long call value MORE OFTEN than the gain from the differences in theta? When this does happen, one could set up stops that take into account time value differences at expiration and maximum implied volatility loss tolerance to minimize losses
And assume that I will sell the long call at the same time the short call option is bought back, expires, or is exercised.
What am I missing here? Am I missing nothing and simply relying on my assumption that the implied volatility won't take a nose dive? Is this a reasonable assumption for an ATM spread? (I understand that if it was out of the money and underlying price approached the strike price then implied vol would probably fall)
Example:
February crude oil short ATM call
March crude oil long ATM call
net debit
after I wait a month or so, then I simply buy back the spread for a gain from the faster time value dissipation from the Jan call... if long call is ATM then if underlying price rises, falls, or stays the same then wouldn't implied volatility rise or stay the same assuming a u-shaped graph (strike on x-axis, implied vol on y-axis) and no big news...
Is it really that common for implied volatility to drop and eat away long call value MORE OFTEN than the gain from the differences in theta? When this does happen, one could set up stops that take into account time value differences at expiration and maximum implied volatility loss tolerance to minimize losses
And assume that I will sell the long call at the same time the short call option is bought back, expires, or is exercised.
What am I missing here? Am I missing nothing and simply relying on my assumption that the implied volatility won't take a nose dive? Is this a reasonable assumption for an ATM spread? (I understand that if it was out of the money and underlying price approached the strike price then implied vol would probably fall)