I've never done it and no one talks about it, even in books, but if I bought puts on a stock and I want to exercise them, why do I have to buy stock before the exercise? Shouldn't I be able to exercise the puts directly and what would happen next is that I will be assigned actual short shares in my account? Then, if I choose, I can hold the short in the stock or buy it back. If the company then goes under, I keep the full amount of the short (100% gain).
All these buy side call/put contracts are linked to actual shares, right? As a holder of either them, I have the right (but not the obligation) to exercise them at anytime I choose, regardless of the correctness as it relates to profitability, and it should have nothing to do with what stock of that same company I happen to have in my account [Yes, I understand that an exercise of puts when you're holding the underlying assigns those shares to someone else].
If any of this is wrong, please correct me. It's the writer of calls and puts who have no control of exercise. The buyer has all of the control, having nothing to do with current ownership of the underlying stock and has paid a premium for that right.
You don't have to buy the shares before exercising puts if you don't want to and yes if you exercise the puts without the shares called nake puts you will be short in your account. Two things can happen with this: 1) If there is not enough or no available shares to be shorted, you will have to close the short position right away after exercising the puts and you will have to buy in the market anyway to close the position and that leads to 2) By the time when you buy the shares, the price might have gone up and you might be potentially short-squeezed. Nobody knows what can happen with the company. If this is just a Chapter 11 reorganization, the company can do something like debt restructuring and can still survive especially if it gets some white knight that comes in to buy the company, the share price can spring back up to its previous level and you would be short-squeezed or at least lost some of the profit.
In short (no pun intended), buying the shares first now at cheaper price just makes sure you are covered and locks in at least majority of the profit. Sure the share price can go to zero and you get 100% of the gain but what if it doesn't? And besides, unless you bought huge amount of shares like at least hundred's of K's of shares, you are not going to miss much.