Does anyone fully understand the new rules on FASB accounting for goodwill as they change very significantly.
http://www.fool.com/news/foth/2002/foth020103.htm
http://www.bobermarkey.com/cajully01.html
Does this mean that if a company pays 15m for a company with assets worth 10m, that instead of amortizing that 5m over a 40 year period that they instead take a charge of 5m upfront and then have no amortization expenses? Or does anyone else understand this fully? I certainly dont.
http://www.fool.com/news/foth/2002/foth020103.htm
http://www.bobermarkey.com/cajully01.html
Does this mean that if a company pays 15m for a company with assets worth 10m, that instead of amortizing that 5m over a 40 year period that they instead take a charge of 5m upfront and then have no amortization expenses? Or does anyone else understand this fully? I certainly dont.