Wikipedia describes Naked Put as follows ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naked_put ):
So, then why does the above definition talks of "uncovered" and also of a "short position"?
Isn't the above definition illogical/wrong?
I don't get it! If the Put writer loses (ie. spot falls below strike) then he has to buy the underlying at the strike price.A naked put (also called an uncovered put) is a put option contract where the option writer (i.e., the seller) does not hold the underlying position, in this case a short equity position, to cover the contract in case of assignment.
So, then why does the above definition talks of "uncovered" and also of a "short position"?
Isn't the above definition illogical/wrong?