Quote from falconview:
But because IV is high, the value on the feb 38 calls were trading up there at $0.50-$0.55 (AKAM would have to move by 13-14% just to breakeven on these options). Playing it with the 100% confidence that AKAM will reach $38, I can then sell these 38 calls at $0.55 (2 - 0.55 = $1.45) and lower my cost to 1.45. Still with the expectation to get $4.00 back, I now have a potential reward of $2.55 instead of just $2.00. So instead of risking 2 for 2, I'm now risking 1.45 for 2.55, or a risk ratio of 1.75:1 vs just 1:1.
Wow! I rather get the glimmer of this, but not totally yet. Thanks for the more in depth explanation. I guess you bought the 34 and sold the 38 ? So you bought in the debit spread at $2 and sold the 38 at .55. Going to have to look this up AKAM to get an idea of where you placed this debit spread. Is it out, or in the money? The idea of selling was to capture the swollen premium from volatility. Depending where it was, wouldn´t that offset also the increased cost of the 34? Anyway roughly speaking I think I vaguely understand where you are coming from. I can see where you would leg out. Selling the long at top volatiligy and highest premium value, and waiting for the short to drop premium as the volatility dies off.