You didn't answer my questions. AGAIN, tell us exactly how the definition of antisemitism was "hijacked" by those who you claim are "about 1% of Semitic population." Did "the Jews" do it through their ownership of the English language? Their exclusive and total control of dictionaries? And is this part of the vast Zionist conspiracy?
Actually, YOU'RE the one trying to hijack the definition with your lame antisemitic propaganda.
Actually, YOU'RE the one trying to hijack the definition with your lame antisemitic propaganda.
Quote from Tresor:
Another consiracy theorist... when there is no consiracy theory to be searched for.
Trader, let's have a little talk. Let's imagine that the French who constitute now about 1% of all human population decided at one time in ancient history to call anything that they perceive anti-French as anti-human.
Would you be happy to be called anti-human if you disliked Napoleon Bonaparte's policies or would you simply would like to be called anti-French or simply anti-Bonaparte? You would of course be unhappy to find out that the term ''anti-human'' was hijacked to favour one nation and discredit the remaining nations of the world.
No different case is with ant-semitism. Semitic jews are about 1% of all Semites. It is very unjust to label all remaining Semites ''anti-Semites'' just because they oppose Zionist regime in Telaviv.
Regards
