Quote from acrary:
All I was showing was that by using the % of equity as a sizing strategy, it adds a negative expectancy that has to be overcome by the expectancy of the strategy.
I had spent a good part of my waking hours mulling over the differences between your statements and figures and my simulations and intuition. And then it hit me. You are not presenting the full picture. Let us take the "breakeven" trader from my earlier post who starts off with $100,000 and executes 2 trades with 3% risked per-trade. As before, % win = % loss = 50%, with win size = loss size = 1. Your method of depicting this case (and others) does not include all possible scenarios and is therefore flawed, IMHO. For this particular situation there are 4 scenarios, each with equal probability of occurring :
{Win Loss}, {Loss Win}, {Win Win}, {Loss Loss}
As can be seen from the attached Excel worksheet, the expected ending equity is $100,000. The "drag" you isolated is made up for by the "boost" in {Win Win}.
All I was showing was that by using the % of equity as a sizing strategy, it adds a negative expectancy that has to be overcome by the expectancy of the strategy.
The negative expectancy you allude to is counterbalanced by the positive expectancy you have chosen to ignore. The expectancy of the strategy is zero and remains so even with a %-of-equity-based sizing strategy.
Similarly, if you include
all possible scenarios in your earlier 40% win rate vs. 70% win rate example (see link below),
http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/attachment.php?s=&postid=193181
and weigh them by frequency, you will end up with
equal ending equities for both strategies, as indeed I did in my simulations.
If both strategies have the same expectancy, the same number of trades, and you're using a % of equity for your risk sizing method, then the higher win % is superior. It will have a lower DD, higher return and a better risk:reward ratio.
It will not have a higher return - the returns are identical.