It is not "people" here that are reading that Congress can pass a law that is not reviewable by the Court. It is one person, me. And I am reading in our Constitution under Article III:I am not sure where people are reading that congress can pass a law and claim there is no review at all whatsoever?
The Supreme Court shall have appellate jurisdiction... with such exceptions and regulations as the Congress shall make.
This is what I read. I interpret the words according to their common definitions. What does this statement mean to you? (You may be concerned regarding the words replaced by an ellipsis. You can see these omitted words in my post #122, or consult your own copy of the Constitution.) I put in an ellipsis so as to emphasize what this clause in our Constitution under Article III says.
It says Congress can both regulate the Court and make exceptions as to which laws and facts may be appealed to the Court.
How do you read this?
But believe me things are not nearly so straight forward as a straight forward reading of Article III would lead one to believe!
It was fifty-four years since 1803, when the inferior body of the Court first declared a portion of an Act by the Superior legislative body to be "unconstitutional," that a second act of Congress (The Missouri Compromise) was declared unconstitutional. The years since have been filled with increasing participation of the Court not only in adjudicating law according to our statutes, but also in determining whether the statutes themselves are valid. It would take a powerful Congress indeed, and speaking as one body, to wrest back the full power given it in our Constitution and instruct the Court. Just as the Framers intended the Congress to be able to do.
In this there is a great danger. Nevertheless if ever there was a time for Congress to step up to their Constitutional responsibility it would be now. I'll not hold my breath.
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