so if i understand this correctly, using numbers, some are assumed, your plan is as follows:
-qqqq at 30
-trade size:100
-bet every: 5 (based on the qqqq range)
-max: 15-45 (30-5*3bets, 30+5*3)
- buy 8x otm(15P,45C) strangle, adjust to remove garbage otm contracts -> buy 8x otm(23P,33C) for $200
- buy 100 shares of qqqq for $3000
case 1:
1) if qqqq drops to $25, buy 100 shares for $2500
2) if qqqq drops to $20, buy 200 share for $4000
3) if qqqq drops to $15, buy 400 shares for $6000.
So $15500 for a $12000, plus gains from the 8x 23P.
case 2:
1) qqqq drops to $26, and remains flat.
so you lose $400 from qqqq, and $200 from the strangles as they expire worthless.
Is this correct for the worst cases? of course 5 as martingale bet is probably too wide of a gap to doubledown for qqqq etc...but i mean is the concept about right?
You dont need to buy the calls, only puts in the above examples, but based on your explanation you basically wanted to leave the strangle intact and scalp around in the middle for profit in both directions, and if your directional bet is wrong, you apply martingale