Quote from smwbbe:
I believe the area on the chart for 12/17/13 was done incorrectly. If bar 2 is a P1 and bar 3 is a repeat (another P1), you don't have a T1 yet at bar 4 to have a BO,T1. Bar 4 is the T1 and the RTL is drawn to the top of bar 4 and no BO,T1 occurs as the close of bar 5 is inside the RTL.
Understanding BO,T1 has been a real bugaboo for me. Going by the interaction between frenchfry and JH that I've quoted below, it must have been a mistake on the 12/17 chart. And that's the thing - mistakes happen and it's ok.
I am understanding Jacks quote to mean;
a BO T1 is only a BO T1 if we either:
1) have already had a T1 and then we have a BO of an rtl and /or
2) if without previously having had a T1 yet, we BO an rtl with dec vol.
(the dec vol being the T1).
Is this what Jacks quote is saying ?
If so, then we do have a B0 T1 on bar 4 because we BO the rtl with dec vol (?).
PS: many thanks to Heroic for starting this thread and everyone for being a part of it. My apologies for any obvious and not so obvious signs of ignorance on my part.