Hi Ladies and Gentlemen,
There is something about Mark Price that I totally don't understand the logic behind its application.
I believe Mark Price is widely used in TD Ameritrade (Thinkorswim), Interactive Brokers and many other trading platforms.
So, I understand that:
a) Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Mark Price) x No. Of Contract
b) Mark Price = (bid price + ask price) / 2
My question:
Doesn't it make more sense if Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Bid Price) x No. Of Contract, instead of a) ?
I am saying this because Bid Price is essentially the minimum (most conservative) price what we get when we close/exit a trade (say, a long call position), no?
Why would we want to refer to a somewhat artificial and baseless price (i.e Mark Price) to overestimate our Unrealized PL% ?
To put thing into context,
Say, i entered into a long call option position with the following details:
bid price = 0.10
ask price = 0.50
trade price = 0.10
no. of contract = 1
If the formula is Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Mark Price) x No. Of Contract
Then, mark price = 0.3 and Unrealized PL% = 200%
Whereas,
if Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Bid Price) x No. Of Contract
Then, Unrealized PL%= 0%
Thus, by referring to Mark Price as the price to close/exit a position, your estimated Unrealized PL% will always be upward overestimated which i don't understand the logic behind.
Appreciate if anyone here could shed some light.
There is something about Mark Price that I totally don't understand the logic behind its application.
I believe Mark Price is widely used in TD Ameritrade (Thinkorswim), Interactive Brokers and many other trading platforms.
So, I understand that:
a) Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Mark Price) x No. Of Contract
b) Mark Price = (bid price + ask price) / 2
My question:
Doesn't it make more sense if Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Bid Price) x No. Of Contract, instead of a) ?
I am saying this because Bid Price is essentially the minimum (most conservative) price what we get when we close/exit a trade (say, a long call position), no?
Why would we want to refer to a somewhat artificial and baseless price (i.e Mark Price) to overestimate our Unrealized PL% ?
To put thing into context,
Say, i entered into a long call option position with the following details:
bid price = 0.10
ask price = 0.50
trade price = 0.10
no. of contract = 1
If the formula is Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Mark Price) x No. Of Contract
Then, mark price = 0.3 and Unrealized PL% = 200%
Whereas,
if Unrealized P/L% = (Trade Price - Bid Price) x No. Of Contract
Then, Unrealized PL%= 0%
Thus, by referring to Mark Price as the price to close/exit a position, your estimated Unrealized PL% will always be upward overestimated which i don't understand the logic behind.
Appreciate if anyone here could shed some light.
