I need a rest at the moment, when I'm better I'll study this. Thank you very very much for your amazing reactivity today. Hope all is going nicely for you !!!
Making JH' SCT and all his material alive
- Thread starter WchPl
- Start date
I need a rest at the moment, when I'm better I'll study this. Thank you very very much for your amazing reactivity today. Hope all is going nicely for you !!!
It does and there is.
I'll have 4 things to do today.
1 - Deal with the PP1a problem
2 - Deal with the T2F problem
3 - Deal with the MT/MR problem
4 - Do a log
1- The PP1a problem
Correct me please if I get you bad.
I've had troubles in a more or less close past with the acceleration concept when used for some PP!s EEs. It's surely time to revisit it and fix what is fuzzy since a bit. Let's try to DD :
- first, you talked about 11:20am bar. It's the second P2, so was it a typo ? and you better meant 11:30am bar, which is the one on which one is to see a PP1a cause it's the 3rd P2 ?
- next, here is the part concerned :
At 11:00, due to PP4 EE just before, a new short trend segment begins, VTP assigns P1 on this bar with short BM.
Next bar creates XB. As we we're not at this stage, able to draw any short TL, there can't be any BO,T1; there can only be BM,rev. 11:00am bar's close does not end above prior short BM so no BM,rev either. It's a repeat BM. Volume is DEC so T1 in VTP.
Next bar is XR and now a first short TL appears. No FS, and volume still DEC so repeat T1.
11:15 we get OB and we have no FS. VTP says T1/P2. Here is where I begin while debriefing something that could make a difference. It's just that I don't know yet how to deal with that. What do I mean : at the moment the OB is present, it, along its own path, shows a third T1 in a arow. No matter there is acceleration or deceleration, it's a PP6. Internal kills. In our case, there is no internal between those three elements (the three T1's). If I understand properly the PP!s sheet, the "window left event" column gives the first element from which to start to see if there's any PP!.
In the case of a PP1a, the first event from which to start is the first P2.
Back to our case and : either when OB comes, there's a PP6 and I wonder if the P2 still appears. Logically it should not be being as the trend is ended by the PP6 and on next bar we'll assign P1 with, in this case, long BM.
Let's say that was wrong, and the PP6 is kind of absorbed due to the OB that simultaneously affects 2 volume element on the same bar. Then, 11:15 is our first P2.
11:20 : a bit more complexity here for me. It deals with the prior established TL that began at 11:05's bar's high (first T1). A tape is built with that bar and the next one (XR). Next came OB and we can cross the OB with the tape. I've left two tapes on my chart. One is crossing OB so that next bar's close is included in the TL, and another one (more slopped) so that the next bar's close is excluded creating BO,T1 and that woud create a cascading effect. As you stated, I'm to find a PP1a. So, at the third P2 in a row, SO there must be three P2s. If there are three P2s, there can't be any BO,T1 in between. So I assume the correct tape when an OB is present is the one crossing it and making it all to include next close. The rupture point is either high/low of the OB.
So let's continue with that and the correct tape when OB comes is the one including next bar's close inside the short TL.
When OB has come, we have an extended tape that began at 11:05. We said I'm to use the tape crossing OB and including next bar's close.
So from 11:05 to 11:10 we have a short tape with a given slope. When 11:15bar comes, the way to cross the OB makes the prior tape to be FANNED; we are at the first P2 and so from here we are to watch for acceleration. 11:20bar comes and the extended tape comes to its high; as stated before we've fanned the tape; we are at second P2.
11:25bar comes, it's internal that can't kill any PP1a, we include that bar in the trend and have to do so to FAN the tape. Then 11:30 comes, everything is lining up to include it inside the short TL and to do so we are to FAN the prior extended tape.
I did my best to show the fanning action with the thin red lines fanning three times in a row.
So, I can't see acceleration.
Finally, the additional requirement for a PP1a is (P2.2 - P2.1) < (P2.0 - P2.1) in absolute value. It is true on this case as we have P2.0 = 54.62K, P2.1 = 55.021K and P2.2 = 55.822K.
But we need the two requirements to declare there's a PP1a.
I've dissected in the most granular way I could to understand how you see a PP1a and for now, it's a fail for me.
the only possibility I see to see an acceleration is if you consider the extended tape starting with the high of bar 11:05 to the OB HIGH, and then yes from here to the second P2 (11:20) there is acceleration. But this would not stick with the maneer of taping I've been used so far with OBs. No big deal if there's to change that but I wonder if the problem I tried to solve in this post resides in this thing -> taping when OB comes along.
1 - Deal with the PP1a problem
2 - Deal with the T2F problem
3 - Deal with the MT/MR problem
4 - Do a log
1- The PP1a problem
I understand your comment as "yes it does need acceleration to see a PP1a and there is acceleration, so there is a PP1a."
Correct me please if I get you bad.
I've had troubles in a more or less close past with the acceleration concept when used for some PP!s EEs. It's surely time to revisit it and fix what is fuzzy since a bit. Let's try to DD :
- first, you talked about 11:20am bar. It's the second P2, so was it a typo ? and you better meant 11:30am bar, which is the one on which one is to see a PP1a cause it's the 3rd P2 ?
- next, here is the part concerned :
At 11:00, due to PP4 EE just before, a new short trend segment begins, VTP assigns P1 on this bar with short BM.
Next bar creates XB. As we we're not at this stage, able to draw any short TL, there can't be any BO,T1; there can only be BM,rev. 11:00am bar's close does not end above prior short BM so no BM,rev either. It's a repeat BM. Volume is DEC so T1 in VTP.
Next bar is XR and now a first short TL appears. No FS, and volume still DEC so repeat T1.
11:15 we get OB and we have no FS. VTP says T1/P2. Here is where I begin while debriefing something that could make a difference. It's just that I don't know yet how to deal with that. What do I mean : at the moment the OB is present, it, along its own path, shows a third T1 in a arow. No matter there is acceleration or deceleration, it's a PP6. Internal kills. In our case, there is no internal between those three elements (the three T1's). If I understand properly the PP!s sheet, the "window left event" column gives the first element from which to start to see if there's any PP!.
In the case of a PP1a, the first event from which to start is the first P2.
Back to our case and : either when OB comes, there's a PP6 and I wonder if the P2 still appears. Logically it should not be being as the trend is ended by the PP6 and on next bar we'll assign P1 with, in this case, long BM.
Let's say that was wrong, and the PP6 is kind of absorbed due to the OB that simultaneously affects 2 volume element on the same bar. Then, 11:15 is our first P2.
11:20 : a bit more complexity here for me. It deals with the prior established TL that began at 11:05's bar's high (first T1). A tape is built with that bar and the next one (XR). Next came OB and we can cross the OB with the tape. I've left two tapes on my chart. One is crossing OB so that next bar's close is included in the TL, and another one (more slopped) so that the next bar's close is excluded creating BO,T1 and that woud create a cascading effect. As you stated, I'm to find a PP1a. So, at the third P2 in a row, SO there must be three P2s. If there are three P2s, there can't be any BO,T1 in between. So I assume the correct tape when an OB is present is the one crossing it and making it all to include next close. The rupture point is either high/low of the OB.
So let's continue with that and the correct tape when OB comes is the one including next bar's close inside the short TL.
When OB has come, we have an extended tape that began at 11:05. We said I'm to use the tape crossing OB and including next bar's close.
So from 11:05 to 11:10 we have a short tape with a given slope. When 11:15bar comes, the way to cross the OB makes the prior tape to be FANNED; we are at the first P2 and so from here we are to watch for acceleration. 11:20bar comes and the extended tape comes to its high; as stated before we've fanned the tape; we are at second P2.
11:25bar comes, it's internal that can't kill any PP1a, we include that bar in the trend and have to do so to FAN the tape. Then 11:30 comes, everything is lining up to include it inside the short TL and to do so we are to FAN the prior extended tape.
I did my best to show the fanning action with the thin red lines fanning three times in a row.
So, I can't see acceleration.
Finally, the additional requirement for a PP1a is (P2.2 - P2.1) < (P2.0 - P2.1) in absolute value. It is true on this case as we have P2.0 = 54.62K, P2.1 = 55.021K and P2.2 = 55.822K.
But we need the two requirements to declare there's a PP1a.
I've dissected in the most granular way I could to understand how you see a PP1a and for now, it's a fail for me.
the only possibility I see to see an acceleration is if you consider the extended tape starting with the high of bar 11:05 to the OB HIGH, and then yes from here to the second P2 (11:20) there is acceleration. But this would not stick with the maneer of taping I've been used so far with OBs. No big deal if there's to change that but I wonder if the problem I tried to solve in this post resides in this thing -> taping when OB comes along.
Being as
- all this can be very long for a single day for me
- the T2F is not present on this case because there is a PP1a at 11:30 so then 11:35bar is P1ass, I prefer to skip this problem and face it when it will really come and save some time for the MT/MR and log work.
Before going further and begin either to deal with 3- or 4-, here is, now, how I would see the debriefed part of the chart around the PP1a...and the cascade it yields.
AND (cause it's never over
) -> I wonder then if we can consider that there is an acceleration from 11:55 to 12:00 being as we pass from a non congruent TL orientation to an existing congruent TL with with what is announced by the Ab EE...it seems too easy ^^ but maybe, sometimes it is. Instinctively, I'd say yes there is acceleration from 11:55 and 12:00, so from the second P1 and the third one. Plus, the additional requirement is there too. So maybe , PP1 on 12:00.You are doing great DD!
My bad, I missed that 3rd T1 in the sequence. You are right about this being a PP6. That would make P1 assigned on NEXT which in this case is the second row of the OB. The cascade makes the not PP1 - a BM,rev
What I stated as true earlier is only true if there were not a PP6 present.
Being as
- all this can be very long for a single day for me
- the T2F is not present on this case because there is a PP1a at 11:30 so then 11:35bar is P1ass, I prefer to skip this problem and face it when it will really come and save some time for the MT/MR and log work.
Before going further and begin either to deal with 3- or 4-, here is, now, how I would see the debriefed part of the chart around the PP1a...and the cascade it yields.
View attachment 203236
AND (cause it's never over
In this example focused on the PP1;
yes, since we are focused on the independent variable having satisfied the definition of an EE, it yields one of the forms the PP1’s can present in the dependent variable.
If not in a lat, from this PV form combo, a BM,rev frequently follows.
MADA on 090519 Chart & Logs
I will now give myself a break of one or two hours, in order to give my vrain a little rest, and will begin to study the MT/MR problem and the comments you've just posted. At the moment I write I've just seen a notification telling me new messages have been posted, but I've not taken the time to read them yet. I give you in advance a lot of thank you for your reactivity. Best day to you
Attachments
Thank you very much.
and SO, if what you stated is true if PP6 was not present, I assume the DD I made about the way of taping when OB comes along was surely the answer. I'll go with that and see what happens.
And then , I'd see the redebriefed snippet as follows :
And thanks a lot one more time !
I think then I applied rather goodly the good DDs to the last log I posted.
Well, we've adjusted the missed ID so the problem with T2F disappears.
Anyway, I notice and remind that it makes surge again a little issue I've had for quite a lot with the concept of "n+1 test event ". I know no thing surges when it's not time. When it surges, it's because both conditions making it appear are there, and conditions precluding it to appear are not there anymore. So, although that problem about T2F is not presenting itself anymore on THIS chart, it remains in my mind.
I make the choice to put this precise thing aside for today, and will keep my focus on thinking and DD about MR/MT. As soon as I solve this problem (MT/MR) or find myself overwhelmed with it, I'll go back to that "n+1 test event" and T2F issue.
Anyway, everything must be perfectly understood.
I'll take now a little break of half an hour/ an hour max, and will be back on the MR/MT problematic.