Bar6 high would be the pt3 for the accelerated TL.
And high of bar 5 would be its point 1, wouldn't it ?
If bar5 closed above the RTL of the price cases, it would have been a BO,T1 and the start of a new Dom trend segment.
A little thought : you say "if bar 5 closed above the RTL of the price cases", but which PCs precisely are you pointing out ? All the prior ones beginning from Bar 1 ? So SYM, XR and XR ?
This would lead to know which precise RTL you're using to see a BO,T1.
In addition to that :
The text says:
If possible draw RTL with Sentiment
Signal: BO* of RTL w/ T1*
So, with the clarification you mentionned, and thanks a lot for that !, BO,T1 is BO of prior rtl WITH T1. T1 is decreasing volume, isn't it ?
Previoulsy I had labeled bar 5 as a BO,T1 and you asked : if that is true, where is the T1 ?
I realized with your clarification as for w/ = WITH, that being as volume bar 5 is increasing, bar 5 cannot be a BO,T1.
When I was doing my great matrix, you explained that on a 12 (XB/XR) case, so this is valid too for 21 case (XR/XB) which is the case we're facing here between bars 3-4-5, the close of the third bar can either close between prior established BM and RTL and this would be a BO,T1 only. A t this time once again, there was no mention of volume.
Now back to the chart I'm on : on bar 5 you say if its close had been above the prior RTL of price cases, it would have been a BO,T1.
So what confuses me is : when do you consider volume and need a T1 on the BO to declare there is a BO,T1, and when don't you ?
I see an increasing volume on bar 5, so P2 being as the volume OOE continued on bar 5 towards P2.
I see here something I need to clarify cause I feel there are two oppposite things contradicting themselves. There may be an other distinction to add in order to differentiate, and I don't see it.