Quote from sle:
(a) if this is a first-loss provider, please state that explicitly
(b) what is the post-leverage split, please?
Thank you.
I don't know how accurate this is, but someone sent it to me regarding how this program works:
The basic structure of the program is as follows:
 The manager contributes an agreed‐upon amount of risk capital that sits in a
managed account.
 This capital is then matched 9 to1 by the__institutional anchor â so a $1MM
contribution by the manager would result in a $9MM contribution by the
institutional anchor.
 Each month the manager receives 55% of the gains generated by the combined
managed account.__The institutional anchor keeps the other 45% of profits.
 For profitable months, the account is marked‐to‐market and both parties are
paid their portion of the profits â without disturbing the positions that are being
held at the end of the month.
 The managerâs capital sits in a âfirst lossâ position during any months when
losses are posted.__In subsequent months the managerâs capital sits in a âfirst
gainâ position as well â receiving all gains until losses are made up.
 This arrangement is designed so that the institutional anchor only realizes a
profit when the emerging manager__makes money.