Let's take a underlying at 25,000. People usually prefer ATM strikes with a long straddle but,
For ex - say I wanna take a deep Otm strike at 26000CE priced at 100 and 23800PE priced at 45.
If my bets are on the market moving up and I put 60-65% of the trade amount in the call and 30-35% of the trade amount in the put. If the market goes up and the put goes to 0 and I am willing to risk that considering I have movement expectations, am I doing something wrong here,
Excluding scenarios of IV crush and range market into consideration here. Also excluding theta as the trade here is in a day trade scenario, am I missing something here?
For ex - say I wanna take a deep Otm strike at 26000CE priced at 100 and 23800PE priced at 45.
If my bets are on the market moving up and I put 60-65% of the trade amount in the call and 30-35% of the trade amount in the put. If the market goes up and the put goes to 0 and I am willing to risk that considering I have movement expectations, am I doing something wrong here,
Excluding scenarios of IV crush and range market into consideration here. Also excluding theta as the trade here is in a day trade scenario, am I missing something here?
