Look at this graph, which shows the returns of a strategy that had simply bought SP500 after the index rose the previous day (dividends not included, nor transaction costs), and stayed in cash otherwise (red line; blue line did the opposite):

As you can see, it has been historically quite profitable. However, since around year 2000, the strategy not only stopped making a lot, but it even became unprofitable. Is this just a (very long) bad run and we should expect returns similar to 1950 to 2019 to repeat? Are actually 2000 to 2019 the kind of returns we can expect in the future?
I'm amazed at how big is the difference in returns between one period of time and the other, it really makes you tremendiously skeptical of backtests over small sample sizes. Even 69 years (17371 market days) doesn't seem enough to know what can we expect of a strategy in the future...

As you can see, it has been historically quite profitable. However, since around year 2000, the strategy not only stopped making a lot, but it even became unprofitable. Is this just a (very long) bad run and we should expect returns similar to 1950 to 2019 to repeat? Are actually 2000 to 2019 the kind of returns we can expect in the future?
I'm amazed at how big is the difference in returns between one period of time and the other, it really makes you tremendiously skeptical of backtests over small sample sizes. Even 69 years (17371 market days) doesn't seem enough to know what can we expect of a strategy in the future...
