Long and Short ATM Straddles are Dead Money - But a very accurate indicator of future stock movement.
- Options are very efficiently priced by the MM's.
- MM's do not reward money to lazy traders who want an easy buck without having to bother with due diligence.
- Easy money would be buying or selling the ATM straddle - unless due diligence suggests the options are mis-priced.
- ATM Straddles are most likely to break-even by expiring at the top or bottom range of the straddle.
- The underlying trading range for the life of the ATM Straddle will most likely be Option Strike plus and minus the ATM Straddle Debit/Premium.
- The underlying will most likely close on option expiry day at Option Strike minus ATM Straddle Debit/Premium OR Option Strike plus ATM Straddle Debit/Premium.
EXAMPLES USING REAL QUOTES
- SPY at $212.65.
- July 15, 2016 SPY 213.00 Call $0.88.
- July 15, 2016 SPY 213.00 Put $1.38.
- ATM 213.00 straddle $2.26.
- SPY trading range until option expiry $210.74 to $215.26.
- SPY closes at about $210.74 OR $215.26 on July 15, 2016. Unless the options are mis-priced.
- Both long and short 213.00 straddles expire at about break-even.
- GOOGL at $717.78.
- July 15, 2016 GOOGL 717.50 Call $5.70.
- July 15, 2016 GOOGL 717.50 Put $5.40.
- ATM 717.50 straddle $11.10.
- GOOGL trading range until option expiry $706.40 to $728.60.
- GOOGL closes at about $706.40 OR $728.60 on July 15, 2016. Unless the options are mis-priced.
- Both long and short 717.50 straddles expire at about break-even.
Comments are welcome.
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I'm a full week late to the discussion, but here is my contribution, the cost of the ATM straddle is not really any indication of the implied 1 sigma move from option prices. It is a popular myth that the straddle is pricing the expected move until expiration, but that is incorrect. You only need to look at any theoretical framework to discover that. For instance in BSM, the cost of a perfect straddle (exactly at the money) with interest rates and dividends set to zero is:
Cost Straddle = 2*ATM*[F(sigma*sqrt(t)/2)-F(-sigma*sqrt(t)/2)]
sigma = implied volatility of ATM puts and calls
F(x) = Gaussian cumulative distribution function
ATM= the value of the at the money strike (which is also the value of the underlying at the same moment).
t = time to expiration.
As you can see the cost of the straddle is not providing anything useful right away. Although it could be used to extract the implied volatility of the atm calls and puts (solving for sigma) in the world where dividends and interests rates are zero but I'm not sure how useful that could be.

