Liquid options with low spread

I am not clear on your actual goal and in order to understand you should provide more precise info on what you are doing and why, or else it's difficult to say anything.

Usually, I work with investors, who, in practice, find ways to not pay any taxes at all, and therefore my concern is to make as much $$$ as possible, and not mix the trading approach with the tax concerns. Also because losses and DD are usually negligible (<5%).

Anyway, talking of pure theory, about the trade you are contemplating, since you mentioned about 2 weeks duration, take for instance the available strikes for short-term options. If you have problems with data you may take for instance momentarily the quotes from Barchart or other similar website:

View attachment 300196

I am receiving the same quotes directly on my platform, so I can take them from there:

View attachment 300195

Now, you can clearly see that if you sell (ITM)
PUT 4080
CALL 3990

you get this payoff:

View attachment 300193


if instead, you sell (OTM)
CALL 4080
PUT 3990

you get this payoff:

View attachment 300194

So, as has been already pointed out by two posters (getthatintoya, TheDawn), in any case, you get a "risk equivalent" strangle (but slightly more convenient OTM).

But the spread values are as follows:

ITM
ES FOP 20221209 3990 C CME 50 E-mini S&P 500 [EW2Z2 C3990, 592160444, mult: 50]
ES FOP 20221209 4080 P CME 50 E-mini S&P 500 [EW2Z2 P4080, 592312679, mult: 50]

Spread values: $25

OTM
ES FOP 20221209 4080 C CME 50 E-mini S&P 500 [EW2Z2 C4080, 592312694, mult: 50]
ES FOP 20221209 3990 P CME 50 E-mini S&P 500 [EW2Z2 P3990, 592160462, mult: 50]

Spread values: $12.50

(Not sure why would one consider this basic configuration as low risk and why you say that one leg would be "covering the other part". Probably I am missing something.)

Paper trading execution is generally accurate on IB. Sometimes in real money trading, one can get slightly faster or more favourable executions.

it’s an arb. WTF are you showing independent payoff diagrams?

I told the OP on page 2. I knew it was a tax strategy and there are only two people on this thread that know what they are talking about.
 
Hmm, thank you. But I am still probably not getting what is the advantage of the proposal.

How do you guarantee that you gain in the specific account subject to no-tax jurisdiction and not the other way around?

Unless you can just somehow "swap paperwork" at will, I do not think that is going to happen :)

If you could guarantee that, you could do it on any account,
and obviously would make $$$ with that and not trying these tricks to reduce taxes.

Further, the losses accumulated in the "taxed" jurisdiction are actually useful only
if there is eventually something to tax.

In addition, the position planned to open is not "market neutral" in the sense
that what loses one leg is gained by the other.

A strangle may cause a loss (limited only by time and underlying move) in one account and a small fixed gain in the other one, if the prices escape the strike range, or a small fixed gain in both accounts if the price remains within.

Because you pull the profitable leg in the tax haven year and replicate. Or you pull the losing leg in the taxable domicile and replicate. You’re not getting this. Someone I know did this for someone I know on $30MM notional. They both died in a boating accident in 1909.
 
Because you pull the profitable leg in the tax haven year and replicate. Or you pull the losing leg in the taxable domicile and replicate. You’re not getting this. Someone I know did this for someone I know on $30MM notional. They both died in a boating accident in 1909.

Hmm, trying to understand. Assume we have 2 accounts, say one is in Panama, and one in Switzerland.

Say I make money in the second account. How do I "pull the profitable leg in the tax heaven" and vice versa?
 
Hmm, trying to understand. Assume we have 2 accounts, say one is in Panama, and one in Switzerland.

Say I make money in the second account. How do I "pull the profitable leg in the tax heaven" and vice versa?


You don’t need two accounts, but you can.

Buy MSFT -> short synthetic in n-2025 at 260 strike. You are now in the conversion. You are simultaneously long spot and short synthetic spot. No risk outside assignment but it doesn’t matter for illustration. Some rho as well but you’re not covering. Use index.

Enter 2023. You’re hiding in Panama due to the Paradise Papers and MSFT is up big. You take the gain on shares -> buy the synthetic at n-tenor 2025. You are now in a roll (long synthetic at x, short synthetic at y, 2025).

Enter 2024. You’re back in Germany plotting the Fourth Reich and need a tax loss for the next putsch. You cover the losing 2025 synthetic leg of the roll-arb -> either go long or short underlying against the remaining synthetic. You can keep this shit up forever or until you’re deposed/exiled.

It seems complex but it’s not. You’re just a bit out of your depth.
 
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it’s an arb. WTF are you showing independent payoff diagrams?

I told the OP on page 2. I knew it was a tax strategy and there are only two people on this thread that know what they are talking about.

I get that he is possibly doing this not as a trading strategy, but to save on taxes.

However, the two charts only show that whatever he is planning to do with ITM options he can do just the same, and better, with OTM options. Since he was so concerned about the spread.

It is immaterial how he uses the configuration and if the legs are on different accounts (arbitrage or whatever).
 
I get that he is possibly doing this not as a trading strategy, but to save on taxes.

However, the two charts only show that whatever he is planning to do with ITM options he can do just the same, and better, with OTM options. Since he was so concerned about the spread.

It is immaterial how he uses the configuration and if the legs are on different accounts (arbitrage or whatever).

omg. stop.
 
You don’t need two accounts, but you can.

Buy MSFT -> short synthetic in n-2025 at 260 strike. You are now in the conversion. You are simultaneously long spot and short synthetic spot. No risk outside assignment but it doesn’t matter for illustration. Some rho as well but you’re not covering. Use index.

Enter 2023. You’re hiding in Panama due to the Paradise Papers and MSFT is up big. You take the gain on shares -> buy the synthetic at n-tenor 2025. You are now in a roll (long synthetic at x, short synthetic at y, 2025).

Enter 2024. You’re back in Germany plotting the Fourth Reich and need a tax loss for the next putsch. You cover the losing 2025 synthetic leg of the roll-arb -> either go long or short underlying against the remaining synthetic.

It seems complex but it’s not. You’re just a bit out of your depth.

Ok, I begin to get the picture. So we are talking of continuously moving across countries in time like a fugitive just to save on taxes :-)

Well, sure I am not familiar with that and it is, and will remain, certainly "out of my depth" :-)
 
Ok, I begin to get the picture. So we are talking of continuously moving across countries in time like a fugitive just to save on taxes :)

Well, sure I am not familiar with that and it is, and will remain, certainly "out of my depth" :)


Dude, he stated it. Who cares why? He was explicit about taking a loss in a tax domicile and gains in the tax haven.
 
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