I dont get the principle of why it is brokers are allowing us speculators extra cash to trade with to profit from potentially larger gains.
Now, dont get me wrong, I understand the principle of leverage and the fact that the broker is wanting you to potentially expose yourself to a larger risked position (especially if they`re a market maker) to capitalize not only from the spread but from your loss if they`re trading against you.... (in which case its just artificial leverage right? - I mean, they`re the counter party to your trade, so your money doesnt go any further than the broker themselves)
However, If i traded through, lets say, IBFX who offer 1:50 leverage, why are they willingly giving me there physical cash to leverage up on a position when they only make profits out of the spread (commission) and the trade gets sent over to their liquidity providers?
I know im definitely missing something here, but I cant seem to figure it out why they`d take this risk in allowing me to trade with more money (50x) than what I have on deposit!?
Would be great if someone can explain to me in really basic laymans terms (analogies are welcome
)
Now, dont get me wrong, I understand the principle of leverage and the fact that the broker is wanting you to potentially expose yourself to a larger risked position (especially if they`re a market maker) to capitalize not only from the spread but from your loss if they`re trading against you.... (in which case its just artificial leverage right? - I mean, they`re the counter party to your trade, so your money doesnt go any further than the broker themselves)
However, If i traded through, lets say, IBFX who offer 1:50 leverage, why are they willingly giving me there physical cash to leverage up on a position when they only make profits out of the spread (commission) and the trade gets sent over to their liquidity providers?
I know im definitely missing something here, but I cant seem to figure it out why they`d take this risk in allowing me to trade with more money (50x) than what I have on deposit!?
Would be great if someone can explain to me in really basic laymans terms (analogies are welcome
)
.