Hallo experts,
Put yourself into patient mode, I'm fresh from trading kindergarten.
Just when I thought I figured out leverage and margin I was struck with this fact: the lower the leverage, the higher the margin. Now this will be crystal clear for the rest of you, let's see if I have it right: if I trade 100k at 100:1 I just commit 1k at trading time, right? And if I'm trading a major pair my margin would be, let's say, 1% of the position (starting at 1000 at trade time and moving with the rate subsequently). Conversely if I'm trading at 50:1 with the same 1000 my position would be 50k and the margin would be 2%, so again 1000.
Problem is: I am thinking of the margin as a guarantee for the broker that even in a sudden move of the rates there's some headway to close my position(s) without incurring a loss (for the broker itself, on lent money). But then wouldn't it be more logic to ask for a higher margin when the leverage is stronger? The same market move would do more harm to the broker borrowed money if leverage is higher, wouldn't it?
Sorry, probably a dumb question given that this inverse leverage/margin relationship seem to be standard practice, yet I can't figure out... (wrong math?)
neuro
Put yourself into patient mode, I'm fresh from trading kindergarten.
Just when I thought I figured out leverage and margin I was struck with this fact: the lower the leverage, the higher the margin. Now this will be crystal clear for the rest of you, let's see if I have it right: if I trade 100k at 100:1 I just commit 1k at trading time, right? And if I'm trading a major pair my margin would be, let's say, 1% of the position (starting at 1000 at trade time and moving with the rate subsequently). Conversely if I'm trading at 50:1 with the same 1000 my position would be 50k and the margin would be 2%, so again 1000.
Problem is: I am thinking of the margin as a guarantee for the broker that even in a sudden move of the rates there's some headway to close my position(s) without incurring a loss (for the broker itself, on lent money). But then wouldn't it be more logic to ask for a higher margin when the leverage is stronger? The same market move would do more harm to the broker borrowed money if leverage is higher, wouldn't it?
Sorry, probably a dumb question given that this inverse leverage/margin relationship seem to be standard practice, yet I can't figure out... (wrong math?)
neuro