Quote from pepper_john:
I agree that this is a highly informative thread and thank you for digging out the paper.
For the benefit of further discussion and for the convenience of other viewers, can we agree on the following points discussed so far?
1.There were two exchange rates in China, one official and one black market.
2.The black market exchange rate hovered around 1 US = 8.2 in the years prior to 1994, and probably dropped slightly, say from 8.2 to 8.5, in 1994. In other words, it did not change much.
3.The official exchange rate was terminated on Jan 1, 1994.
Now the question is what was the effective rate faced by the exporters? I think the effective rate was much closer to the black market rate than to the official rate. The reason is that almost all international trades are settled in US dollar. After exporters received the dollar, what they would do? Would they go to a government agency to get the official rate $1 = 5 RMB or would they go to the black market to get $1= 8.2 RMB? For me the choice is clearly the latter.
These are the actual rates according to the study:
Committed to improving the trade balance, the authorities intervened in the swap
market and repeatedly devalued the official rate from 3.45 yuan per USD in 1986 to
about 5.76 yuan per USD in 1993, and eventually unified the official and swap market
exchange rates at the prevailing swap price at 8.62 yuan per USD in 1994. The rate
was revalued to 8.27 yuan per USD by 1998, and stabilized at this level until July
2005. At 19:00 on July 21, 2005, the People's Bank of China announced a revaluation
of the yuan by 2.1% and traded at a rate of 8.11 yuan for the USD.
So I don't really agree, because the tip off is the 8.27 rate after 1998: that's basically 8.3, and is what my informant says it was after the revaluation, so he's obviously remembering this one.
This study also says the exporters were using a rate that was a weighted average of the three rates prior to 1994. That's really the rate we're after here. We don't know what that was, and we don't know what the weighting was either, but look at what happened to the swap rate, which we know was part of that weighted average: it went from 5.76 per dollar in 1993 to 8.62 in 1994 (my informant said it was 8.5 and settled at 8.2: 8.5 is closer to that 8.62 rate you see here, which I also find interesting). That's basically a 50% pop, which is not too far from the 40% the FRB said was a best guess.
This is the point I was trying to make: both my guy's and your guy's testimony is really just anecdotal: it's what they as ordinary citizens did, but that's not the same as what an exporter subject to government regulation would have had to do.
If exporters were being forced to use a non-market rate that was a half-baked compromise between the black market and the official rates prior to 1994, which is what that weighted average rate sounds like, but then allowed to use what amounted to the black market rate after that date, you've got a pretty severe competitive shock that's being applied to China's direct competitors in the other poorer countries of East Asia.
I could very easily see that being the case. You have to infer a lot, but it looks for all the world like a textbook example of the central government being forced to cave in and face reality, which happens periodically in Third World countries. The fact the swap rate deteriorated so sharply between 1993 and 1994 means the pressure on the government probably got a lot worse at that time: it looks like they were unable to enforce anything close to the official rate, and I could just close my eyes and see the exporters clamoring away that it was time to get real and let them use the market rate.
Once that happened, it would have been just a matter of time before the other poorer countries of East Asia would have been forced to face the music as well, as we know they were a few years later.
Anyway, that's the picture I see forming from all this.