Quote from straddler:
Why don't you think you will have to pay on the tender? They all ready reported 31% of the float will be accepted at $85. I guess your clearing firm has a lot of ninnies in the back office.
So what is wrong/right about the following scenario?:
I short 100 shares of KMG at $75 on May 18th, the day of the tender.
Because shareholders on May 18th still have the right to tender shares (until the midnight deadline), a portion of the $75 price of KMG on the 18th can be attributed to this right.
The amount of money I control is:
100 * $75 = $7,500
Assuming a 30% tender allocation percentage at $85/share, that would mean this right is worth:
30 * $85 = $2,550
That means the remaining 70 shares is worth:
$7,500 - $2,550 = $4,950
So the price of KMG after you lose the right to tender will be:
$4,950 / 70 = $70.71
Therefore, on May 19th, KMG starts trading regularly without the right to tender.
Now, if I cover 100 shares at $69.28 on May 19th then it seems that there are two possibilities:
1. The shares I shorted were not tendered in time in which case I make a profit of $500+.
2. The shares I shorted were tendered before midnight on May 19th. If this is the case, what happens?:
a) Do I have to pay someone else the 30 * $85 = $2,550 tender, in which case I am out about $2,000?
b) 30 shares of my short are converted in the tendering process leaving me actually only 70 shares short on May 19th. In which case I am now long 30 shares of the new untenderable KMG?
Confused.