Quote from jonnyy40:
www.mises.org
Halfway down: 1819:america's first housing bubble. (text article)
Caused by Banks printing unbacked notes.Everyone knew back then that 'doing nothing' was the answer.
Then,further down under 'Media'.All the current audio files are good.(They've been 'up' for 3 days so may be replaced soon). Why has no-one heard of the crash of 1921?.Because Everyone knew it was caused by the Inflation for ww1 and the only cure was belt-tightening.The 'FED' didn't conduct open market operations until 1922. Keynesianism can't answer the swift recovery.
Also on Youtube,Robert Higgs Ph.D shows that all prominent Keynesians thought the contraction in Government spending in 1945 and afterwards would plunge the World back into depression.It didn't happen but they and the current Keynesians didn't/don't address why not. - First link gives the quick verbal answer,second gives it with evidence.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-kbnrqf8JUA&NR=1
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=D62xXzTXQH8
I'm not saying Keynesian Economics works or not, nor do I claim to be an economics expert. But how do you explain this:
World War 2 got the economy going because the government spent tons of cash on the war effort (building tanks, planes, etc etc). Obviously this created thousands of jobs, and got people spending again etc. etc. In your post you admit that in 1945 when spending decreased the economy did not crash.
So how come the government can't spend that same money as it did during World War 2 right now, without the world war, and have the same effect on the economy?
This is a question I've never heard answered by anti-Keynesian economists. Again, I do not claim to know if Keynesian economics works or not, but the question above needs an answer to sway me either way.
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