Quote from Trader666:
One thing missing from this conversation is that zero probability events can happen all the time and there can be infinitely many ways for a probability 1 event to NOT happen.
No, the reason the probability of ruin is 1 is because with any finite account size X, there's always a finite distance from X to zero. But even though the probability is 1, ruin will almost surely happen -- not surely.Quote from intradaybill:
Zero probability means that the event is not part of the probability space and probability 1 means the event is certain, i.e. it is like it has happened already.
Quote from intradaybill:
So maybe you want to say something else like for instance that people do not always know the probability space and they cannot measure probability correctly. This is true for trading and I think this is the reason that the probability of ruin is 1 no matter what the hit rate is and the risk-reward. The issue is not if it happens but when it will happen.
Untrue. The probability of randomly selecting a particular (i.e., predetermined) number is zero. But the probability of selecting any number between 0 and 1 is one by virtue of the fact that the act of selecting a number between 0 and 1 is performed. Randomly selecting an unpredetermined number is not a zero-probability event.Quote from Trader666:
... there are infinitely many numbers between 0 and 1 and the probability of randomly selecting any of them is zero. Yet every time one is selected a zero probability event occurs.
Theoretically true, practically untrue. In the real world, the number is chosen mechanically or electronically and roundoff or measurement error assures the result will be a rational number.Quote from Trader666:
Less intuitive is that there are infinitely many rational numbers between 0 and 1 and infinitely many irrational numbers between 0 and 1. BUT when drawing a random number from the entire sample space [0,1], the probability of randomly selecting any of rational numbers is zero and the probability of randomly selecting an irrational number is 1, even though there are infinitely many rational numbers that could potentially be selected.
Certainty of ruin is averted by using a positive-expectation trading system.Quote from Trader666:
No, the reason the probability of ruin is 1 is because with any finite account size X, there's always a finite distance from X to zero. But even though the probability is 1, ruin will almost surely happen -- not surely.
I was talking theory but even "in the real world" irrational numbers can easily be expressed electronically, for example with roots.Quote from kut2k2:
Untrue. The probability of randomly selecting a particular (i.e., predetermined) number is zero. But the probability of selecting any number between 0 and 1 is one by virtue of the fact that the act of selecting a number between 0 and 1 is performed. Randomly selecting an unpredetermined number is not a zero-probability event.
Your certainty of ruin can't be averted because you're a dumbass.Quote from kut2k2:
Theoretically true, practically untrue. In the real world, the number is chosen mechanically or electronically and roundoff or measurement error assures the result will be a rational number.
Quote from kut2k2:
Certainty of ruin is averted by using a positive-expectation trading system.
Quote from Trader666:
Not always. For example, there are infinitely many numbers between 0 and 1 and the probability of randomly selecting any of them is zero. Yet every time one is selected a zero probability event occurs.
Less intuitive is that there are infinitely many rational numbers between 0 and 1 and infinitely many irrational numbers between 0 and 1. BUT when drawing a random number from the entire sample space [0,1], the probability of randomly selecting any of rational numbers is zero and the probability of randomly selecting an irrational number is 1, even though there are infinitely many rational numbers that could potentially be selected.
Quote from Trader666:
No, the reason the probability of ruin is 1 is because with any finite account size X, there's always a finite distance from X to zero. But even though the probability is 1, ruin will almost surely happen -- not surely.
Quote from intradaybill:
No, you just failed the course on probability. probability can be defined in 4 different ways. You are talking about the Classical definition which is known to be problematic because:
1. I requires all oucomes are equally likely
2. It does not apply to infinite outcomes unless a measure of infinity is introduced for the particular problem
No, even though you are correct about the distance, the probability of ruin is 1 because the other players in the game make it to be that.
Quote from Trader666:
No, YOU just failed it.
http://www.statlect.com/subon/probab2.htm
Next time check your facts before trying to counter mine with nonsense.

Quote from intradaybill:
You don't understand what you read. You need to take a graduate course in probability to talk about these things. You also must find reputable sources like a standard text.
The subject of the classical definition is controversial. of course, you have no clue about that.
Quote from Trader666:
One thing missing from this conversation is that zero probability events can happen all the time and there can be infinitely many ways for a probability 1 event to NOT happen.