In the case of selling strangles (as the study), Isn't the "premium" (I.e. Sum of options extrinsic + intrinsic value) all "theta" (I.e. Extrinsic value decay)? Stated another way, since the OTM option premium sold is all extrinsic and theta is extrinsic decay, I don't understand the distinction you're making.
Also, your formula shows 18% annual return on capital (I.e. Return on account value), which I think is calculated correctly but don't understand what is has to do with "premium" vs. "theta" ?
However, I don't believe Bobby's numbers takes into account buying back positions and the $49k is just the gross premium sold. I could be wrong on that though.
On the second point, ignore the return on account for a moment. The study is just saying that the strategy can expect to retain 25% of the daily theta.
