Spyder,
That's a valid question. As I mentioned in my first post, I'm sidestepping a lot of stocks because their breakout out of range (or resistance) does not happen with a concomitant rise in volume (or a spike as some require). I've gone back a lot of times and looked to see what happened to these securities and more often than not, I see that they have ground higher or levitated higher (since conventional wisdom would say one needs volume to drive prices higher). They've done so with the same amount of volume, just sort of floated up, if you will.
I try to seek understanding. That is why I'm here asking these questions and spending so much energy and time. If I was like others, I would simply say, buy when MACD goes here or sell when RSI goes there, etc. I try to understand the why behind everything before I use it in trading.
As you know, Jack and many others use an oft repeated principle that goes along the lines of, If volume is rising and the trend is up, the trend will continue and mutatis mutandis for down trends. I'm here wondering why this is so, and why it may not be so.
As I've tried to explain, volume is simply a coming together of two people. An agreement on price and disagreeent on value. It has no other meaning. Whatever other meaning we give it, that meaning comes from us. It is not inherent in volume itself.
So to say that you need volume to act in a certain way for price to go up/down makes no sense because one is a measure of interest why one is a measure of valuation. And further to this theoretical framework, for each example you provide fitting your criteria, others can provide one where it is the opposite.
It may be a simple occurance of random positive reinforcement. By that I mean that we 'see' a pattern and give it meaning, we look for it again and giving it the same meaning, react to it in a certain way. I'm sure you know there've been a lot of interesting experiments where animals are given random positive feedback (food pellets or treats) and they start exhibiting the most convoluted and strange behaviours (dances, hops, etc.) because they believe that what they are doing is causing the positive feedback. They don't realize that the system is completely random and has nothing to do with their actions!
So, could it, maybe be the same when it comes to the conventional wisdom about volume?
I'm skimming through the word doc you provided and may post comments re it later.
btw thanks for the clear example. Much appreciated.
That's a valid question. As I mentioned in my first post, I'm sidestepping a lot of stocks because their breakout out of range (or resistance) does not happen with a concomitant rise in volume (or a spike as some require). I've gone back a lot of times and looked to see what happened to these securities and more often than not, I see that they have ground higher or levitated higher (since conventional wisdom would say one needs volume to drive prices higher). They've done so with the same amount of volume, just sort of floated up, if you will.
I try to seek understanding. That is why I'm here asking these questions and spending so much energy and time. If I was like others, I would simply say, buy when MACD goes here or sell when RSI goes there, etc. I try to understand the why behind everything before I use it in trading.
As you know, Jack and many others use an oft repeated principle that goes along the lines of, If volume is rising and the trend is up, the trend will continue and mutatis mutandis for down trends. I'm here wondering why this is so, and why it may not be so.
As I've tried to explain, volume is simply a coming together of two people. An agreement on price and disagreeent on value. It has no other meaning. Whatever other meaning we give it, that meaning comes from us. It is not inherent in volume itself.
So to say that you need volume to act in a certain way for price to go up/down makes no sense because one is a measure of interest why one is a measure of valuation. And further to this theoretical framework, for each example you provide fitting your criteria, others can provide one where it is the opposite.
It may be a simple occurance of random positive reinforcement. By that I mean that we 'see' a pattern and give it meaning, we look for it again and giving it the same meaning, react to it in a certain way. I'm sure you know there've been a lot of interesting experiments where animals are given random positive feedback (food pellets or treats) and they start exhibiting the most convoluted and strange behaviours (dances, hops, etc.) because they believe that what they are doing is causing the positive feedback. They don't realize that the system is completely random and has nothing to do with their actions!
So, could it, maybe be the same when it comes to the conventional wisdom about volume?
I'm skimming through the word doc you provided and may post comments re it later.
btw thanks for the clear example. Much appreciated.
Quote from Spydertrader:
Clearly, many examples exist ( I mentioned HANS earlier and Babak has provided a few others) where it appears volume plays little or no role with respect to price changes. However, why focus on equities where the theory appears to fail?
i built a - DeGrobinator - software that does the best it can at translating GrobSpeak...