Is ATR down so much?
What caused this?
Is it temporary or a permanent feature now?
Average True Range comes from ["preceeds!!"] the same variability that gives us
volatility, so that, while they are computed in an entirely different fashion, with a bit of effort, they will chart nearly identically. (So, conceptually, they are the same, but computationally, they are different animals altogether.)
But to your question -- the ATR is down so much because volatility is down so much. This is true not only for the (long-term-ed) options' VIX, but for what is now termed the VIX9D (0-8 days?). But if these are tides, look at the individual waves crest-trough-crest... (Which is to say, look at the 4-hour, the 1-hour, the 1-minute charts)... and you'll see the same
placidity -- which is death to scalping.
What caused it? Dunno! I think the narrative that is aimed at sub-10.0 S&P volatility works for the underlying price-action ATR as well: prices at extreme highs, pushed to follow available yield, low interest rates, high money supply. It
happens to coincide with the FED's raising of rates and lowering of balance sheet levels. (But I'm reluctant to link a convenient timing of events to a cause↔effect relationship.)
Temporary or permanent? Regardless of whether you mean with respect to a low-ATR regime or a high-ATR regime, I don't think I/we need to answer that. The reason? If the low-ATR/scalping-sucks regime were to return tomorrow, I would know by looking at the low-ATR, and I would know *not*to*trade (scalp) while the market reflect insufficient waves to take me in/out of a trade. If the market stays with an ATR sufficient to wash up and down price points that I find attractive, then I'd be a fool to ignore it. (With all caveats to bracket/stops in place and all that.)
Again, though: my own guess (
right now: late 2018) is that we are *returning* to the historic vol (and preceding it: price ATR) of olde -- that the *drought* of 2012-2017 in passed.
But hey: things may change.
