The article you posted is very good. Still, I am confused about few things.
1) To make money gamma scalping you have to buy underpriced options.
Thus far, is my readings I saw that an option would be considered underpriced either if its IV was historically low or if its IV was lower than its HV.
Now, you seem to define underpriced options in a different maner: "[an option] trading at an implied volatility significantly below the true volatility"
What is the true volatility? How is it calculated? Is it the standard deviation of the daily closes over a specific time period?
2) "But if you can find options that are underpriced then scalping
gammas will allow you to profit from the discrepancy. It also will let you
profit from correctly guessing that true volatility will increase."
Now, is that assuming that we hold the expiration until expiration?
Also, from your statement should I understand that if IV<"true volatility" then it is given that "true volatility" will increase?
3) "It doesnât even matter if the implied volatility never rises along
with the actual volatility."
Then, can i say that :the main source of gains would be an increase in actual volatility [please define actual volatility] and a potential, less important, source of gains would be an increase in IV?
4) In your article, why do you choose the purchase of a straddle with 45 days left to expiration? Why not a straddle with more time to expiration (to have less time decay to race with)?
5) What is the potential maximum loss in your position? Is it equal to the time decay (plus commissions)?
6) More generally speaking, how does the esperance of gains/losses of a gamma scalping strategy compare with a simple straddle purchase? What elements should be taken into consideration when choosing one strategy over the other?
7) "If the futures continue going higher, youâll continue to make more money on your options than youâll lose on your short futures."
Could you please explain this phenomena?