Quote from BigFunky:
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I suggest the answer is simply because when the profit of the company increases the value of the company inevitably increases - if it's trading below its fair vaule, then someone could buy the whole comapny and make a profit - indeed they should buy it and make a profit. That's why you shouldn't ignore the fact that your shares don't exist in isolation - if the market can price them higher, then it will.
The value of the company increases FOR WHOM? Who is "someone" - is that
you? If someone does buy that company, how do you make money? So you are telling me that the companies you invest in you ultimately hope they will be bought out and hence you will get a premium from when you bought it? Well, you better be reeeeeal good, because this occurs some fraction of 1% of the time. Who is buying AAPL or MSFT any time soon, or the scores of hundreds or thousands of other stocks that have zero chance of takeover? That does not make a theory of markets. That just says that some stocks are valued as takeover targets, which btw, is reasonable way to invest. I am talking about 95% of stocks for which this has almost no chance of occuring, and they pay shit for owning them, e.g., GS, AAPL, and a list that would take me hours to type.
So there is a reason to buy growth shares - whether you as an individual owner can extract the value out is irrelevant, as long as it would possible for the market to do so, the value will be reflected accordingly (so it does put money in your pocket, but only after you sell them). Gold on the other hand, makes no sense at all.
So it is irrelevant that I can extract money from a stock that I am long? How do you propose I make money? People that talk about the market as some unexplained phenomena are amateurs. The "market" is nothing but people like you and me, either investing/trading their own money or someone else's.
edit: An analogy - If I owned a brand new Boeing 787 dreamliner, what would it be worth to me? I can't fly it as I'm not a pilot, I can't even afford to fuel it, or hire a pilot, and I can't afford to maintain it. Effectively it's not practically useful to me because I can't do anything with it. All I could do is sell it to obtain its fair value (its fair value to someone who could use it), or I could lease it out and make a profit.
So you are comparing a Boeing 787 with a piece of paper? Fine.
Ok, a 787 I can lease to American Airlines for say $10M a year. So if I buy it for say $100M, I can see a revenue cash flow from it's lease. But why get so complicated? Let's talk real estate. I haven't got a clue how to do plumbing, or carpentry, or electricity, but I can buy a building. I can then rent the units and I have cash flow. I may then one day sell it for a higher price than I bought it. Do you see the difference? If a stock pays no dividends or shit dividends, that is like buying a building that I can't rent out! All I can hope to do is sell it to somone else for a higher price, and hope he doesn't care that it doesn't generate income. In other words, a ponzy scheme. But hey, as long as a new sucker steps up to the plate because "stocks are valued based on their earnings", it happens and will continue to happen all the time.
Earnings will mean something to me if I see that a corporation uses those earnings to pay a dividend and raise it with some frequecy. Everything else is smoke and mirrors. That the market goes higher inspite of this has nothing to do with what you think it does. It goes higher because of the 401K phenomena. It is a travesty that money that gets send to mutual funds has to be put into play in the stock market.
But what if I only owned 1% of said 787 dreamliner. I have no power or authority to lease it out to make a profit. What if the other 99% didn't want to lease it out, thus it was making no profit at all. I now own something that makes no money for me - is it worth nothing?
Does something valuable, when divided by 100 become worthless? I suspect not - it does have intrinsic value (to somebody else) whether or not I can extract that value. I submit that if the whole has vaule then part must also have value - perhaps only if it is possible to obtain the whole.
See above.