Do market makers price inverse leveraged ETF options simply by using the IV of the un-leveraged version and multiplying that IV by the leverage factor? I've assumed that was the case (here's an old discussion). But it seems that's not always true...
Here is a comparison of SPXU (-3x ETF) put IV and SPY call IV. This is using data from the middle of the day on 11/2/18 for options expiring 1/17/20. The IVs seem roughly aligned, as I would expect.
BUT the following is from 10/25/19 for options expiring 1/15/21. Why is the SPXU IV noticeably higher? (Approximately 1.5 vol points higher.)
When analyzed this way, the inverse leveraged ETFs seem more expensive lately - not just a one day fluke. And across a number of such products (e.g. SQQQ, SDOW).
Am I over simplifying by assuming the pricing should be the same with just the IV adjusted by the leverage factor?
(By the way, the IVs were calculated by using implied forwards for both products to account for borrow rates and dividends, and the Black76 formula. Then SPXU IV and %-OTM is divided by 3. Result shows IV of bid/ask/mid.)
Here is a comparison of SPXU (-3x ETF) put IV and SPY call IV. This is using data from the middle of the day on 11/2/18 for options expiring 1/17/20. The IVs seem roughly aligned, as I would expect.
BUT the following is from 10/25/19 for options expiring 1/15/21. Why is the SPXU IV noticeably higher? (Approximately 1.5 vol points higher.)
When analyzed this way, the inverse leveraged ETFs seem more expensive lately - not just a one day fluke. And across a number of such products (e.g. SQQQ, SDOW).
Am I over simplifying by assuming the pricing should be the same with just the IV adjusted by the leverage factor?
(By the way, the IVs were calculated by using implied forwards for both products to account for borrow rates and dividends, and the Black76 formula. Then SPXU IV and %-OTM is divided by 3. Result shows IV of bid/ask/mid.)