Intraday FX Player

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CF, he is using the previous high of the 40WMA, the one around 5:10 GMT as a future reference point for the high 8:06 GMT. I got 52 by doing the same with the last low by taking the value of the WMA at the last low.
 
Still I need to find out where and what is wrong...

Here is my 1min chart w/ 40WMA. And I am sure period is correct, enough bars as well and WMA is applied to close...

Actually no other MA as well would approach actual price high, unless price was BELOW it while moving up...

What did I understand wrong? :confused:
 

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Quote from cvds16:

CF, he is using the previous high of the 40WMA, the one around 5:10 GMT as a future reference point for the high 8:06 GMT. I got 52 by doing the same with the last low by taking the value of the WMA at the last low.

A ha! Got it now! Thanks! :D

P. S. My northern blood flows sloooowly in my brain... :D
 
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