Interest rates and deep itm options vs long futures?

I noticed that with about a week until expiration, a deep itm option on the s&p index xsp has about $15 more time value than the same strike put, I guess due to interest rates? Would being long a future instead of the deep money option have any cost savings, or would the future also decline in price by about $15 in a week because of interest rates? When looking at the different expiration's of ES futures, they only seem to be about a quarter point different, which I would have thought would be a lot more if interest rates are affecting the futures. Thanks.
 
I noticed that with about a week until expiration, a deep itm option on the s&p index xsp has about $15 more time value than the same strike put, I guess due to interest rates? Would being long a future instead of the deep money option have any cost savings, or would the future also decline in price by about $15 in a week because of interest rates? When looking at the different expiration's of ES futures, they only seem to be about a quarter point different, which I would have thought would be a lot more if interest rates are affecting the futures. Thanks.
If you post specific example of the comparison you are focused on, it will likely be possible to obtain a response enabling a clear understanding of the specific case(s)!
 
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for example xsp market price of 322, the Jan 10th 310 call trading ~12.30 while the 310 put trading ~0.15 Those are a general idea of how it was trading. So why the extra 0.15 for the call over the put in time premium?
 
for example xsp market price of 322, the Jan 10th 310 call trading ~12.30 while the 310 put trading ~0.15 Those are a general idea of how it was trading. So why the extra 0.15 for the call over the put in time premium?
Huh? Is your question really: Why is the Extrinsic value of a CALL not identical to that of the corresponding PUT? Also, partially related, you may wish to consider the increased BID/ASK price of the ITM option, which is typically not Balanced, to produce a nice MID price! If I have misunderstood, please reply with additional info.
 
(C-P)=(k-k_forward) , (C+P)-(C-P)=2*timevalue(k) where () means take the absolute value. its the forward versus spot but it is an effect of considerable interest.
 
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