Encountered this for the first time on Friday (expiration day) around 3pm: IB's system rejected my attempts to exercise ITM calls, saying that I didn't have sufficient margin...(presumably because even though I had the cash required to buy the underlying shares, doing so would have left me in a non-compliant margin position.) I ultimately closed them by selling the long positions on the open market, but had to take like 5 cents below intrinsic b/c that's all I could get from MM.
Would rather have just let them expire and get auto-exercised, but I was uncertain about just what would happen in that scenario: their system rejected my attempts to exercise them manually at 3pm, so wouldn't the same restriction apply when the system tries to auto-exercise them after close? In researching the issue, I found something troubling on a different broker (OptionHouse)'s policies page:
That seems to describe exactly what I'm concerned about: that a brokerage can simply deny you the ITM value(!?) Yes, it's client's responsibility to manage margin but that seems really heavy-handed...is that standard practice everywhere (IB in particular, if anyone knows)?
Would rather have just let them expire and get auto-exercised, but I was uncertain about just what would happen in that scenario: their system rejected my attempts to exercise them manually at 3pm, so wouldn't the same restriction apply when the system tries to auto-exercise them after close? In researching the issue, I found something troubling on a different broker (OptionHouse)'s policies page:
"Accounts with insufficient equity on hand prior to exercise or assignment are subject to undue risk as a result of an adverse price change in the underlying security upon delivery. To protect against the excessive risk of an adverse movement in the underlying security, OptionsHouse may intervene and manage the risk on your behalf. Such intervention may include closing out existing positions, buying or selling stock against expected exercises or assignments, or entering “Do Not Exercise” instructions for positions expiring in-the-money."
That seems to describe exactly what I'm concerned about: that a brokerage can simply deny you the ITM value(!?) Yes, it's client's responsibility to manage margin but that seems really heavy-handed...is that standard practice everywhere (IB in particular, if anyone knows)?