Quote from Martinghoul:
You can get the risk-neutral pdf by differentiating the smoothed Price(strike) function twice, if memory serves...
Quote from MasterAtWork:
True .
As a practical way to do it, you can estimate implied distribution with at least 3 calls with closed strikes.
Assume 3 calls C1 C2 C3 with strikes K1=K2-d and K3=K2+d, with interest rate r, and T the maturity.
C1(K2-d)
C2(K2)
C3(K2+d)
Implied distribution at K2 is simply ImpDist (K2)=exp(-rT)(C1-2C2+C3)/d²
One can do the same for each call. That way you 'd have an Implied distribution including the skew.
Masteratwork
I could swear that we used to call this technique "butterfly quadrature," but to my surprise I can't find a single Google hit on the term.Quote from MasterAtWork:
Implied distribution at K2 is simply ImpDist (K2)=exp(-rT)(C1-2C2+C3)/d²
One can do the same for each call. That way you 'd have an Implied distribution including the skew.
Quote from erol:
so Ci are the prices of the ith call correct? correct
So, the formula (C1-2C2+C3)/d^2 is not part of the exponent, right? right
If not, then ImpDist(K2) is essentially the PV of (C1-2C2+C3)/d^2 correct? correct
I really appreciate your help, and pardon my ignorance... but I'm not seeing how I go from this formula to get a set of logarithmic price changes, since my only variables are r and T
You won't get a price change, you 'd get approximate implied risk neutral probabilities
I think I may be asking the wrong question... If you want to get logarithmic price changes, you just need to translate implied annualized volatility into implied daily deviation ( almost current implied volty divided by sqrt(256)). That way you'd get an expected logarithmic price change