I’m not a great proponent of TA, but when I see posts deriding it, and then in the next sentence see talk of bull markets and bear markets I am puzzled.
At its simplest, surely TA seeks to find indications that price is a shade more likely to move up or down based on some previous price movements. Isn’t declaring a market to be a bull or bear market implicitly assuming that this is possible and therefore that TA can work? That is, that if the market is moving up it is more likely to continue to do so than not? I suppose you could wriggle out of it by saying it is a bull market right up to now, but might go anywhere from now on, but this doesn’t seem to be the way it is used in practice, where bull markets may be deemed to go on for months or years.
At its simplest, surely TA seeks to find indications that price is a shade more likely to move up or down based on some previous price movements. Isn’t declaring a market to be a bull or bear market implicitly assuming that this is possible and therefore that TA can work? That is, that if the market is moving up it is more likely to continue to do so than not? I suppose you could wriggle out of it by saying it is a bull market right up to now, but might go anywhere from now on, but this doesn’t seem to be the way it is used in practice, where bull markets may be deemed to go on for months or years.