Is it correct to say a 2 standard deviation move to the downside is impossible(on a yearly basis)? ie something can't go down 200%.
Same question for a stock with a 50% IV and a 3 standard deviation move. Not possible? Am I thinking about this correctly?
EDIT: I thought I remember watching a TastyTrades video saying 30 delta is ~1 SD, which makes sense if 1 SD covers 68% of possibilities. If IV is 100%, where would the 30 delta line up(on the surface it seems like it would be at 0, but I know that makes no sense).
Thanks!
Same question for a stock with a 50% IV and a 3 standard deviation move. Not possible? Am I thinking about this correctly?
EDIT: I thought I remember watching a TastyTrades video saying 30 delta is ~1 SD, which makes sense if 1 SD covers 68% of possibilities. If IV is 100%, where would the 30 delta line up(on the surface it seems like it would be at 0, but I know that makes no sense).
Thanks!
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