I'm failing to understand the example of the problematic arbitrageur given above.
If I am reading this link correctly: the NASDAQ fee schedule already provides
no liquidity rebates for shares executed below $1.00.
http://www.nasdaqtrader.com/trader/tradingservices/productservices/pricesheet/pricing.stm
Further it seems that execution fees were capped at 0.1% of total dollar
volume for liquidity removing trades executed below $1.00.
So how can the example above ever have worked with a penny stock?
Sorry if this is just an elementary misunderstanding, but I am confused.
If I am reading this link correctly: the NASDAQ fee schedule already provides
no liquidity rebates for shares executed below $1.00.
http://www.nasdaqtrader.com/trader/tradingservices/productservices/pricesheet/pricing.stm
Rebate for Adding Liquidity for All Securities
Greater than 35 million shares added: $0.0025
Greater than 20 million shares added: $0.0022
All others: $0.002
There will be no rebate for NASDAQ-listed
shares that execute below $1.00.
Further it seems that execution fees were capped at 0.1% of total dollar
volume for liquidity removing trades executed below $1.00.
Execution Fees for Removing Liquidity for All Securities
Greater than 35 million shares added and greater than 55 million shares removed or routed: $0.0026
Greater than 25 million shares added and greater than 65 million shares removed or routed: $0.0026
Greater than 20 million shares added and greater than 35 million shares removed or routed: $0.0028
NASDAQ-listed shares that execute with a share price below $1.00 are 0.1% (i.e., 10 basis points) of total dollar volume of the transaction to remove liquidity. Orders executed outside of the NASDAQ facility will be charged execution fees for routing.
So how can the example above ever have worked with a penny stock?
Sorry if this is just an elementary misunderstanding, but I am confused.
