Assuming I initiate futures trades during RTH when 50% intraday margins are in effect, once the full 100% margin kicks in (overnight margins) am I correct in assuming the maintenance margin is the margin used?
For example if I had $32000 in my account and at noon I bought 10 ES contracts and didn't sell them, when the time hit and it switched to 100% margin I would assume the margin becomes $3150 (overnight maintenance margin) x 10 contracts or $31500 so nothing would be liquidated (assuming the price of ES hadn't changed)? Not that this would be a good situation to put myself in, but would IB liquidate?
SSB
For example if I had $32000 in my account and at noon I bought 10 ES contracts and didn't sell them, when the time hit and it switched to 100% margin I would assume the margin becomes $3150 (overnight maintenance margin) x 10 contracts or $31500 so nothing would be liquidated (assuming the price of ES hadn't changed)? Not that this would be a good situation to put myself in, but would IB liquidate?
SSB