Quote from NoDoji:
1. 5min time frame, rising 20EMA, place a buy stop 1 tick above the last new high, with a profit target equal to the stop loss. The size of the stop loss will be dependent on the instrument traded; do your own statistical research to determine the size stop that keeps you in most of the trades that successfully hit a profit target equal to the stop loss (it's a bit like a middle school math problem, meaning anyone of average intelligence should be able to figure this out for a given instrument).
2. 5min time frame, rising 20EMA, price breaks the last new high by more than just a few ticks, cross-check a 1min chart with a 1min 20EMA on it and when price pulls back to within a couple ticks of that 1min 20EMA without breaking a previous 1min swing low, place a limit order to buy a tick above the value of that 1min 20EMA, with a profit target equal to the stop loss. The size of the stop loss is determined as described above for your chosen instrument. It should not have to be very far below that 1min 20EMA. If price closes below the 1min 20EMA after an entry is triggered, and the stop is not hit, place a limit order to exit the trade break even (if possible). If price breaks a previous 1min swing low after an entry is triggered, placing a limit to exit break even is optional. As long as the 1min 20EMA isn't breached, the trade is still valid.
For down trends (falling 20EMA), simply reverse the process.
so if you used this strategy on thursday on ES would you not do anything until the 13:15 bar? Because there is no break of a major swing h/l until that time? even though it "looks" like a trading range day..
using the 1 minute tactic does that mean you'd be buying the 13:34 bar @ 1521.75 (1 tick above ema) and then would you exit @ 13:40 bar because it closed below the ema and below the previous pivot low? or would we stay with the trade? or am i not doing this right?
