I am getting my butt handed to me on a daily basis!

Quote from jack hershey:SNIP
Here is today's chart fully annotated. This chart was "snagged" with snagit.
The annotating was done by a person finishing up the 40 days. Notice it is neat and orderly and correct.
I see a number of green rays on the chart, but the aren't attached to particular bars - they just appear without being attached to a price bar (highlighted with purple arrows). What is their purpose?
 

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Quote from smwbbe:

I see a number of green rays on the chart, but the aren't attached to particular bars - they just appear without being attached to a price bar (highlighted with purple arrows). What is their purpose?

Green rays are named "bookmaks". When a ray begins it is kept in force. Notice how there is always a green ray in effect.

The platform I use is such that the ower does not understand sophisticated trading. (review the training videos).

we work to influence those who own trading platforms.

The status of platforms at this point is that the subscribers accept their performance.

John Bollinger is on the same page as we are. Progress is being made.

In the mean time, we degap bar by bar.

As you see day after day all the math that is automated is done with the idea that the platform venders will catch up some day.

You may discover that we do not degap the rtl's. They fit into the "good enough" category.

Notice the boundaries (orange) of the laterals are also degapped.

On the log, there is a column labelled "Arrows (UL)" This is for judging internals to get "wait".

Also you see the column "degap". A check is used to notify ourselves that we need to degap price and see how the RDBMS turns out.

There is no degapping on volume rays. A given ray ends when it is replaced during a trend forwarding. Thus you see flights of stairs that go up or go down.
 
Quote from smwbbe:
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Bars 10, 11 and 12 are P1s with accel = PP1. However, your chart indicates a BO,T1 in addition to the PP1. How can you have a BO with a T1 when T1 hasn't occurred yet?
...
Here I also have to scratch my head. According to the volume test procedure bar 12 is a P1 creating a PP1 with bar 10 and 11.

Yes, it is also a BO RTL BUT it is missing the T1. Jack tried to make clear to Jered that there MUST be a T1 to consider a "BO RTL/T1".

Here are the possibilities and I hope Jack can clear it up.

1. It is wrongly labeled.
2. We somehow missed another rule which applies here.
3. It is one of those mysterious "P1, P2 without T1" situations.
 
This may be a very stupid question, but it's nagging at me. In using the failsafes (BO,T1 and BM,REV), do you automatically reverse when those EEs occur? Or is it business as usual with them like any other EE - if one of those occur, you look for the next EE to be on the right side of the Modrian Table to confirm the 'c' turn?
 
Quote from frenchfry:

Here I also have to scratch my head. According to the volume test procedure bar 12 is a P1 creating a PP1 with bar 10 and 11.

Yes, it is also a BO RTL BUT it is missing the T1. Jack tried to make clear to Jered that there MUST be a T1 to consider a "BO RTL/T1".

Here are the possibilities and I hope Jack can clear it up.

1. It is wrongly labeled.
2. We somehow missed another rule which applies here.
3. It is one of those mysterious "P1, P2 without T1" situations.
I see another possibility:

4. We are looking at the final annotation. In realtime we could have had a T1 which then at the end of the bar turned into a P1. :)
 
Quote from smwbbe:

Reposted to include appropriate attachment:
What does "a shu in PP3" mean?

[/B]
If I'm reading your chart annotations correctly (pink ray, not green), I'm not seeing a P2 having been assigned for bar 7. How do you have the A Band established (and thus the Ab EE) if P2 hasn't been assigned?

On the LEFT side of the attached file, the GREEN arrow at the bottom shows a pink ray. On the RIGHT side of the attached file, the BLUE arrow at the bottom shows a green ray.

Thanks for posting the charts side by side. You left chart is what we are sriving to do. The right chart is a good learning chart where the failsafe is omitted and just the primary and secondary OOE's are carried out.

What has been learned recently is how to do the test procedure. You are doing quite well.

I especially like how you do post the rules correctly.

The green arrow shows bar seven as pink for P1. The right chart shows bar 7 as green for P2. So when Failsafe is added, bar 7 is preceded by a BO T1 which restarts the OOE's.

Without failsafe bar 8 is an Ab LVBO.

With fail safe bar 8 is a T1.



Bars 10, 11 and 12 are P1s with accel = PP1. However, your chart indicates a BO,T1 in addition to the PP1. How can you have a BO with a T1 when T1 hasn't occurred yet?

You are correct it cannot be done. Good work

On the LEFT side of the attached file, the RED arrow at the top of the volume pane shows the notations, PP1 and BO,T1.

remove the BO T1 to correct the chart.[/B]
 
Quote from frenchfry:

Here I also have to scratch my head. According to the volume test procedure bar 12 is a P1 creating a PP1 with bar 10 and 11.

Yes, it is also a BO RTL BUT it is missing the T1. Jack tried to make clear to Jered that there MUST be a T1 to consider a "BO RTL/T1".

Here are the possibilities and I hope Jack can clear it up.

1. It is wrongly labeled.
2. We somehow missed another rule which applies here.
3. It is one of those mysterious "P1, P2 without T1" situations.

Yes the rules are correct and answer 1. applies.

P1 to P2 occurs only on bar 78, sometimes. The tules are:

1. On bar 78 "advance one peak".

2. is there is no T1 before or after bar 78 in a trend formation, then consider the first P! to play the role of a T1 instead.
 
Quote from smwbbe:

This may be a very stupid question, but it's nagging at me. In using the failsafes (BO,T1 and BM,REV), do you automatically reverse when those EEs occur?

Yes, we reverse on all EE's.*


Or is it business as usual with them like any other EE - if one of those occur, you look for the next EE to be on the right side of the Modrian Table to confirm the 'c' turn?

For all ee's you use the Modrian Table. An EE in the independent variable corresponds to a turn in the dependent variable. The turn in the dependent variable forwards the slower fractal trading trend.

c to c turn trading is exactly like channel trading. If a person wishes to be more effective and efficient, then he trades within the channel point to point on the channel. When the independent variable is used box to box, then there is a slight difference. trading on the independent variable leads trading on the dependent variable.


* The four types of trends need to be considered for always being correct on reversing. For the Set A, C and D there are no cuations. BUT for Set B there is a concern to handle.

In Set B the turns are c to a to c. You DO NOT REVERSE on the second c turn, you just hold and label the turn with the same arrow as was used on the a turn. By fathoming the significance of the n-1 to n relationships of EE's you can deduce the "why" of the above.
 
here is the whole day for 02OCT13.

We are doing our second doubling this week.

Tomorrow our team may have a pause since techie's are upgrading some of our switch gear.

For 02CT13 the week 7 report will include some open trading prints; some "trading in chop* prints"; and finally using scalping to break reversals into two opposite independent trade of opposite sentiment (An intuitive carving precursor learning experience) prints.




*A CW term that means trading in narrow ranges where "whipsaw" is rumored to exist in CW minds.
 

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