Quote from jerryz:
what if shorter term volatility acclerated because the price is falling in that time frame, but longer term time frame says prices are rising? in this case the measure would say the trend is acclerating, but which way?
if yes, what measure did you use?
Quote from jerryz:
thanks. this is interesting, same kind of idea as the sharpe ratio. the higher the number, the smoother the trend.
however, say we have a market that moves like this:
moves up 20 days in a row, then
moves down 20 days in a row, then
moves up 20 days in a row, then
moves down 20 days in a row.
the ending price is now the same as the starting price. (assuming same increment each day)
in this case, both of the ratios would be 0. but from a trading perspective, this market is great. 4 nicely predicable trends. the two ratios won't capture this.
are there statistical measures that would measure this?

Quote from jerryz:
thanks. this is interesting, same kind of idea as the sharpe ratio. the higher the number, the smoother the trend.
however, say we have a market that moves like this:
moves up 20 days in a row, then
moves down 20 days in a row, then
moves up 20 days in a row, then
moves down 20 days in a row.
the ending price is now the same as the starting price. (assuming same increment each day)
in this case, both of the ratios would be 0. but from a trading perspective, this market is great. 4 nicely predicable trends. the two ratios won't capture this.
are there statistical measures that would measure this?
Quote from Steveyd:
The SMA(200) of ADX(14) series would measure this. Markets with a higher value would be more "trendy" (over the last year) in this respect.