Sorry, you had $1M exposure/position? You should be very very worried about these things then! I hope I misunderstood.I am just few years in options,
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I used to fly for a living and we talked and thought about risk all the time.
My trading account < 100K. It was a bull call-spread of max profit/loss around $10K, however I did NOT took the position OFF, and price sat in the middle, and hence the exposure to the actual shares was around $1M. The stock was Amazon.Sorry, you had $1M exposure/position? You should be very very worried about these things then! I hope I misunderstood.
Sorry I ask, if your max profit/loss was $10K, how did you ended up with a risk of losing $1M?My trading account < 100K. It was a bull call-spread of max profit/loss around $10K, however I did NOT took the position OFF, and price sat in the middle, and hence the exposure to the actual shares was around $1M. The stock was Amazon.
Due to pin risk, one of the hedge option becomes worthless, and other one becomes ITM. With that, I could have ending up shorting $1M worth of AMZN shares, and then buy on whatever market price is on following Monday/Tuesday. I estimate this could have resulted in total loss of > $100K, which includes interest loan to exercise, market price of AMZN on that day, etc...Sorry I ask, if your max profit/loss was $10K, how did you ended up with a risk of losing $1M?
Due to pin risk, one of the hedge option becomes worthless, and other one becomes ITM. With that, I could have ending up shorting $1M worth of AMZN shares, and then buy on whatever market price is on following Monday/Tuesday. I estimate this could have resulted in total loss of > $100K, which includes interest loan to exercise, market price of AMZN on that day, etc...
Due to pin risk, one of the hedge option becomes worthless, and other one becomes ITM. With that, I could have ending up shorting $1M worth of AMZN shares, and then buy on whatever market price is on following Monday/Tuesday. I estimate this could have resulted in total loss of > $100K, which includes interest loan to exercise, market price of AMZN on that day, etc...
Ok if it's a bull-call spread, that means the strike price of the call you shorted is HIGHER than the strike price of the call that you longed. If that's the case, if you could end up shorting $1M worth of amzn shares, then that means your other leg, your long leg is worth even more, how can one of the "hedge option" which I take you mean the long leg be worthless? If your short call is becoming ITM, that means you are winning, you can do one of the following to cash in the profit:
1. You can buy back the short call that's about to become ITM and just let the long call ride and close it when the underlying goes up further and then close the long call. Even if you don't let the long call ride and you close it right away, you would still end up with a profit.
Or
2. If you know FOR SURE that the underlying would DEFINITELY be higher than BOTH of the strikes then just don't anything and let them exercise against each other on their expiration dates and you collect the diff. between the two strikes. That way all you lose is the premiums but you might save some commissions and some energy.
It's called a bull-call spread for a reason, it means when the underlying is bullish, you win, no matter what. If you are still not sure, post the details of your setup here and we'll take a look.
Sorry, took long to respond. Position was as below.
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Sell AMZN 1402.5/1405 Call Spread 26 JAN 18, which was a bearish call spread. Sorry, if i mentioned it was bull call spread.
The pin risk here was on that day, AMAZON was hovering around 1402.5. After hours, it went to slightly above that, but below 1405 price. There was a risk right here, since I didn't close the position, I could have been in short AMZN position with strike @ 1402.5, and my long call would have been worthless. I had 10 contracts on these, so the total shorting would have been
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1402.5*100*10 = 1,402,500 = $1.4M.
If that would have been the case, on coming Monday, I would have to borrow funds from the broker, around $1.4M +/-, pay margin interest on that, and sell it immediately, booking loss/profit, based on how much AMZN fluctuates. A 10% fluctuation, would have immediately resulted in $140K net loss, which would get me into a margin debit balance. Pls let me know if this makes sense, or if I my understanding is incorrect. Appreciate your time, and any valuable inputs.
Overall, I am in net loss, due to many wrong positions lately, so i have taken a break, to learn TA better, and hoping to get my hands dirty again.