How to define a trend 100 % objectively ?

Quote from fluttrader:

anything interesting to add, mister Spiderman ?
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As has been pointed out to you by several different contributers, defining Trend with the aid of Price and Volume provides all one needs. In an uptrend (higher highs), Dominant Volume pushes the trend forward while non-dominant Volume causes the retrace (or pullback). In a down trend (lower lows) the same process takes place, only with a reversal of Volume bar color playing the roles of Dominant and Non-Dominant Volume. These are the basics. This process repeats over and over again, all day every day in every market on every time frame - provided sufficient liquidity exists.

Any more questions?

- Spydertrader
 
Quote from Spydertrader:

As has been pointed out to you by several different contributers, defining Trend with the aid of Price and Volume provides all one needs. In an uptrend (higher highs), Dominant Volume pushes the trend forward while non-dominant Volume causes the retrace (or pullback). In a down trend (lower lows) the same process takes place, only with a reversal of Volume bar color playing the roles of Dominant and Non-Dominant Volume. These are the basics. This process repeats over and over again, all day every day in every market on every time frame - provided sufficient liquidity exists.

Any more questions?

- Spydertrader
More...

Glad to see you can think for yourself, more good "stuff" is always welcome

The problem is WHEN you have a local higher "high" and local higher "low" in the uptrend ..
 
Quote from Spydertrader:

As has been pointed out to you by several different contributers, defining Trend with the aid of Price and Volume provides all one needs. In an uptrend (higher highs), Dominant Volume pushes the trend forward while non-dominant Volume causes the retrace (or pullback). In a down trend (lower lows) the same process takes place, only with a reversal of Volume bar color playing the roles of Dominant and Non-Dominant Volume. These are the basics. This process repeats over and over again, all day every day in every market on every time frame - provided sufficient liquidity exists.

Any more questions?

- Spydertrader
More...
LOL, school's in :cool:
 
Quote from riskfreetrading:

Verify what I wrote above, and see whether I am right or wrong.

PM me if you want to know more about MAs.
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The first condition is met when the price is higher than the price of 200 days ago and cannot be determined be using the 100day MA alone, and the latter isn't exactly correct either.
 
Quote from fluttrader:

The problem is WHEN you have a local higher "high" and local higher "low" in the uptrend ..
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For me, no such problem exists.

Quote from fluttrader:

6300 posts , is he the resident teacher at ET ? LOL
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You average twice the number of posts per day that I do.

- Spydertrader
 
Quote from fluttrader:

6300 posts , is he the resident teacher at ET ? LOL
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You ask "How to define a trend 100 % objectively?" and then laugh when someone takes the time to tell you, without the use of unecessary, lagging derivative indicators (which don't give you an edge anywy)?

Um, bad form.

It is obvious that you didn't understand what he just said to you, and I seriously doubt anyone with any real knowledge would bother sharing it with you ... or even posting on your nOOb thread.

Good luck.
 
Quote from fluttrader:


The problem is WHEN you have a local higher "high" and local higher "low" in the uptrend ..
More...

From which moment you can say there is a higher high and higher low , THAT is the subjectivity in the description

Till now only linear regression as definition fits the bill.
 
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