By borrowing the security from the owner, lending it it to a "shorter" in exchange for a fee and collateral, and then mis-investing the cash generated from that???
So how did AIG's Securities lending division lose money on mortgage backed CDO's???? not like they've been appreciating lately...
They must have been lending their own CDO's, but then why would they have to pay a counterparty? If they were borrowed CDO's they would be liable only for the borrowing fee, not any MTM loss...
I think I must be mis-understanding something fundamentally...
So how did AIG's Securities lending division lose money on mortgage backed CDO's???? not like they've been appreciating lately...
They must have been lending their own CDO's, but then why would they have to pay a counterparty? If they were borrowed CDO's they would be liable only for the borrowing fee, not any MTM loss...
I think I must be mis-understanding something fundamentally...
