How Do Options Make Predictions?

Quote from shortie:

back to OP question: maybe you need to look at how VIX is built (search wiki for VIX). VIX is a mix of options converted to show expected movement in S&P.

"The VIX is quoted in terms of percentage points and translates, roughly, to the expected movement in the S&P 500 index over the next 30-day period, on an annualized basis. For example, if the VIX is at 15, this represents an expected annualized change of 15% over the next 30 days; thus one can infer that the index option markets expect the S&P 500 to move up or down over the next 30-day period. That is, index options are priced with the assumption of a 68% likelihood (one standard deviation) that the magnitude of the S&P 500's 30-day return will be less than 4.33% (up or down)."

Now that is a constructive and positive response! Useful and informative. The next step, of course is to compare how VIX influences the premium/strike price ratios and you got something in your hand! Good Luck!
 
Quote from black diamond:

I don't disagree with you, I am probably just not being clear. It is not my theory, just a mechanical relationship that causes a skew when the shape of the models' distribution is different than the shape of the market's perceived distribution. If the market thinks there is say a 30% chance of a 10% loss in the underlying over the next month and a 15% chance of a 10% gain, then there has to be a vol skew because one implied vol can't price both beliefs in Black-Scholes.

So I guess I am saying that the smirk in equity index vol means the market thinks there is a higher probability of a big decline than a big gain. On average that is right historically so there should be a smirk, at least most of the time, and more demand for downside protection makes sense if you can't time the market.

I think what you are saying is that when the smirk gets more extreme than normal the market is wrong in its prediction and there is actually a smaller chance of a big drop than usual and a higher baseline expected return, which makes sense and doesn't contradict what I was trying to say. Are you observing this in equities or just in crude?

If you read in Barron's that a poll of the nation's investment advisors showed 95% are bullish on IBM, would that inspire you to buy IBM? Of course not. Any seasoned trader understands that such unanimity of opinion is a contrarian indicator.

I look at IV and skews in the same way. Sure they indicate market sentiment - more reliably than any poll. But like any sentiment indicator, I take them as contrarian indicators, not direct predictors.
 
Quote from MAESTRO:

Now that is a constructive and positive response! Useful and informative. The next step, of course is to compare how VIX influences the premium/strike price ratios and you got something in your hand! Good Luck!

What would be an example of a "premium/strike price ratio?"
 
Quote from dmo:

What would be an example of a "premium/strike price ratio?"

Let us say that ES H9 trades at 827. For March expiration options nearest OTM put premium is Bid = 45.75 and Ask = 46.50. (Bid + Ask)/2 = 46.125. Let us deduct this number from the current price (827 – 46.125 = 780.87). The nearest strike is, of course 780. Put premium at 780 is Bid = 28.50 and Ask = 29.00; (Bid + Ask)/2 = 28.75. Let us divide 46.125 by 28.75. Surprisingly this ratio is 1.61 which is very damn close to a famous Fibonacci number (golden ratio) of 1.61803399. What does it mean? Why did it happen? What would happen to this ratio under different volatility conditions? How one can use these ratios to his advantage? What distance in the chains does the number 46.125 represent? Do these ratios maintain throughout all the options in the chains, all the strikes and expirations? Do they behave as a “swarm”? What happens if some of them don’t? How frequently these numbers change and why? I can continue for a long time with those questions. Don’t expect me to give you answers. I think you have enough now to do your own research.
 
Quote from Thunderdog:

Okay, thanks. Fascinating stuff, but I'm clearly out of my depth here and should best stick to my knitting. Thanks for bringing that home. :D

Thank you for saying that. I thought I was the only one feeling that way.
 
Quote from MAESTRO:

Let us say that ES H9 trades at 827. For March expiration options nearest OTM put premium is Bid = 45.75 and Ask = 46.50. (Bid + Ask)/2 = 46.125. Let us deduct this number from the current price (827 – 46.125 = 780.87). The nearest strike is, of course 780. Put premium at 780 is Bid = 28.50 and Ask = 29.00; (Bid + Ask)/2 = 28.75. Let us divide 46.125 by 28.75. Surprisingly this ratio is 1.61 which is very damn close to a famous Fibonacci number (golden ratio) of 1.61803399. What does it mean? Why did it happen? What would happen to this ratio under different volatility conditions? How one can use these ratios to his advantage? What distance in the chains does the number 46.125 represent? Do these ratios maintain throughout all the options in the chains, all the strikes and expirations? Do they behave as a “swarm”? What happens if some of them don’t? How frequently these numbers change and why? I can continue for a long time with those questions. Don’t expect me to give you answers. I think you have enough now to do your own research.

I continue to be astounded that people will waste their time on such nonsense while assuming causation. Absolute quackery on the level of astrology.
 
Quote from pinthestrike:

I continue to be astounded that people will waste their time on such nonsense while assuming causation. Absolute quackery on the level of astrology.

Yes, you are right. NONSENSE, QUACKERY, ASTROLOGY etc. Let us have a good laugh and forget about it. I guess, You can lead a horse to water, but you can't make it drink. Consider the whole thread as entertainment, no harm done. Yet again my attempt to ignite imagination brought nothing but disappointment. I really should stop doing this. You cannot discuss the beauty of music with a deaf person. The Earth of course is still flat and who ever tries to state otherwise is a source of NONSENSE, QUACKERY, ASTROLOGY etc. I participate in ET very rarely for the very reason you stated in your post. Time-to-time I feel that someone out there could be inspired by the research that I have been doing for a long time now, but as usual, NONSENSE, QUACKERY, ASTROLOGY etc. is the label you get on the end. Well, I am good now for another half a year or so of not posting.
 
Quote from pinthestrike:

I continue to be astounded that people will waste their time on such nonsense while assuming causation. Absolute quackery on the level of astrology.
Maestro, don't mind the noise...this guy has a history and the link below details his problem. Thanks for the insight you are providing the audience with. It is obvious you have spent a huge amount of time on your R&D.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Envy

Envy (also called invidiousness) may be defined as an emotion that "occurs when a person lacks another’s [perceived] superior quality, achievement, or possession and either desires it or wishes that the other lacked it."[1] It can also derive from a sense of low self-esteem that results from an upward social comparison threatening a person's self image: another person has something that the envier considers to be important to have. If the other person is perceived to be similar to the envier, the aroused envy will be particularly intense, because it signals to the envier that it just as well could have been him or her who had the desired object.[2][3]

Bertrand Russell said envy was one of the most potent causes of unhappiness.[4] It is a universal and most unfortunate aspect of human nature because not only is the envious person rendered unhappy by his envy, but also wishes to inflict misfortune on others.
 
Quote from ML_QUANT:

Maestro, don't mind the noise...this guy has a history and the link below details his problem. hes to inflict misfortune on others.

This guy is a she, and I'd hoped for a higher level of discourse than ES papertrading and application of more "golden rule" bullshit where it's not applicable.
 
Quote from MAESTRO:

Let us say that ES H9 trades at 827. For March expiration options nearest OTM put premium is Bid = 45.75 and Ask = 46.50. (Bid + Ask)/2 = 46.125. Let us deduct this number from the current price (827 – 46.125 = 780.87). The nearest strike is, of course 780. Put premium at 780 is Bid = 28.50 and Ask = 29.00; (Bid + Ask)/2 = 28.75. Let us divide 46.125 by 28.75. Surprisingly this ratio is 1.61 which is very damn close to a famous Fibonacci number (golden ratio) of 1.61803399. What does it mean? Why did it happen? What would happen to this ratio under different volatility conditions? How one can use these ratios to his advantage? What distance in the chains does the number 46.125 represent? Do these ratios maintain throughout all the options in the chains, all the strikes and expirations? Do they behave as a “swarm”? What happens if some of them don’t? How frequently these numbers change and why? I can continue for a long time with those questions. Don’t expect me to give you answers. I think you have enough now to do your own research.

Very interesting. It's not often here that I find tasty food for thought, so I appreciate it.
 
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